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"UPTO 294 QUESTIONS WILL BE UPLOADED IN THIS PAGE & FOR REST OF THE 900 COPYRIGHT QUESTIONS YOU MUST BE ENROLLED" FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.294 With reference to the news, which among the following is/are correct with respect to the SAWEN ? 1. It is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in 2013. 2. All the south Asian countries are the members of the SAWEN regional network Select the correct answers using the code given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D SAWEN is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in January, 2011 in Paro, Bhutan. It aims at working collectively . as a strong regional inter-governmental body to combat wildlife crime by attainting common mutual goals and approaches for combating illegal trade in the region. SAWEN’s regional network comprises of eight South Asia countries: Afghanistan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Maldives. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.293 Which of the following is correct ? A) Guindy national park is known for tiger reserve B) Namdapha national park is meant for lion conservation C) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve D) Rann of Kutch is wild ass sanctuary Ans. D Guindy National Park is a 2.70 km2 (1.04 sq mi) Protected area of Tamil Nadu, located in Chennai, South India, is the 8th smallest National Park of India and one of the very few national parks situated inside a city. -There are over 14 species of mammals including blackbuck, chital or spotted deer, jackal, small Indian civet, common palm civet, bonnet macaque, hyena, pangolin, hedgehog, common mongoose and three-striped palm squirrel. Guindy Snake Park, formerly the location of Madras Crocodile Bank Trust, is next to the Guindy National Park. Jaldapara Wildlife Sanctuary) is a national park situated at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in Alipurduar District of northern West Bengal and on the banks of the Torsa River. The nearby Chilapata Forests is an elephant corridor between Jaldapara and the Buxa Tiger Reserve[4] Near by is the Gorumara National Park, known for its population of Indian rhinoceros. Toto tribes and Mech Tribes (Bodos) used to stay in this area before 1800. Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also the third largest national park in India in terms of area. It is located in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in India. The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarpforests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests. Namdapha and Pakke Tiger Reserve are in a region, which is the eastern limit of the Bengal tiger's and thenorth-western limit of the Indochinese tiger's range Non-human primates present include stump-tailed macaque, slow loris, hoolock gibbon, capped langur, Assamese macaque and rhesus macaque The Great Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in the Kutch District of Gujarat, India and the Sindhprovince of Pakistan. The Ghaggar River, which presently empties into the desert of northern Rajasthan, formerly emptied into the Rann of Kutch, but the lower reaches of the river dried up as its upstream tributaries were captured by the Indus and Ganges thousands of years ago. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.292 Which among the following has been accorded UNESCO World heritage status ? 1. Serengeti national park 2. Sanctuary of Machu Picchu 3. Arabian Oryx sanctuary Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 1 Ans. C UNESCO WORLD HERITAGE STATUS A World Heritage Site is an already classified landmark, which by way of being unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable piece is of special cultural or physical significance (such as either due to hosting an ancient ruins or some historical structure, building, city, complex, desert, forest, island, lake, monument, or mountain) The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the UN General Assembly.[2] A single text was agreed on by all parties, and the "Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage" was adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO on 16 November 1972. The Convention came into force on 17 December 1975. As of May 2017, it has been ratified by 193 states parties, including 189 UN member states plus the Cook Islands, the Holy See, Niue, and the Palestinian territories. Only four UN member states have not ratified the Convention: Liechtenstein, Nauru, Somalia and Tuvalu The Committee meets once per year to determine whether or not to inscribe each nominated property on the World Heritage List and sometimes defers or refers the decision to request more information from the country which nominated the site. There are ten selection criteria – a site must meet at least one of them to be included on the list. Serengeti National Park, an example of natural heritage site Taj Mahal, an example of cultural heritage site Historic Sanctuary of Machu Picchu, an example of mixed heritage site Only two sites have ever been delisted: the Arabian Oryx Sanctuary in Oman and the Dresden Elbe Valley in Germany. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.291 Consider the following tribes : State / Region Tribes 1. Minicoy : Dhivehis 2. Andaman Islands : Jangil 3. Meghalaya : Jaintia Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Ethnic groups of Meghalaya : Ethnic groups 2011 : • Khasi: 50% • Garo: 27.5% • Bengali: 14% • Nepali: 5.26% • Koch: 1.8% • Jaintia: 2.5% • Hajong: 2.8% • Biate: 1.1% • Tiwa (Lalung): 1.2% • Kuki: 0.43% • Shaikh: 0.3% • Other: 9.33% -By the 1850s when they first came into sustained contact by outside groups, there were estimated 7,000 Andamanese, divided into the following major groups: • Great Andamanese. • Jarawa. • Jangil (or Rutland Jarawa) • Onge. • Sentinelese. Minicoy : Minicoy, locally known as Maliku is an island in Lakshadweep, India. Along with Viringili, it is on Maliku atoll, the southernmost atoll of Lakshadweep archipelago. Administratively, it is a census town in the Indian union territory of Lakshadweep. Minicoy is the second largest and the southernmost among the islands of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It is located 201 km to the SSW of Kalpeni, at the southern end of the Nine Degree Channel and 125 km to the north of Thuraakunu, Maldives, at the northern end of the Eight Degree Channel. Maliku Kandu is the traditional name of the broad channel between Minicoy (Maliku) and Ihavandippulhu (Haa Alif Atoll) in the Maldives. In the Admiralty Charts it is called Eight Degree Channel. Other names for this channel are Addigiri Kandu and Māmalē Kandu. It appeared in old French maps with the name Courant de Malicut. Minicoy has a tropical savanna climate (Köppen climate classification Aw) with warm temperatures throughout the year. Precipitation falls during most of the year; only January to March are relatively dry. The people of Minicoy are ethnically Dhivehis and make up the third subgroup of Dhivehis referred as Mahls. Thuraakunu in the Maldives is the closest island to Minicoy. The bodun owned land and bandu-odies (merchant ships); they were the vering (rulers). The niamin were pilots of the Bandu-odies and while on shore assisted the bodun in administrative and other leadership functions; they were custodians of property and supervised public work. The medhukimbin and the raaverin were working classes (the medhukimbin enjoying a status higher than the raaverin.) The raaverin tapped coconut palms for toddy, a distinctive beverage converted into sweet palm syrup. Coconut vinegar, known as raahuiiy, was also produced by the raaverin. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.290 Which among the following species is/ are the part of the Keibul lamjao National Park ? 1. Sangai 2. Brown-antlered deer 3. stump-tailed macaque, Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Fauna recorded in the precincts of the Lake in the Keibul Lamjo National Park are the Indian python, sambar, barking deer, the endangered sangai species of Eld's deer, wild bear, Muntiacus muntjak, rhesus monkey, hoolock gibbon, stump-tailed macaque, Indian civet Viverra zibetha, marbled cat and Temminck's golden cat. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is the last natural refuge of the endangered sangai (state animal)Rucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), one of three subspecies of Eld's deer FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.289 Who among the following is/are the members of the Indian Statistical Institute ? 1. President of India 2. Representatives of Government of India 3. Prime Minister of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) is an academic institute of national importance as recognised by a 1959 act of the Indian parliament. Primary activities of ISI are research and training of Statistics, development of theoretical Statistics and its applications in various natural and social sciences. Originally affiliated with the University of Calcutta, the institute was declared an institute of national importance in 1959, through an act of Indian parliament, Indian Statistical Institute act, 1959. ISI functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) of the Government of India. Members of this council include the President of ISI, the Chairman of ISI, representatives of the Government of India including one representative of RBI, scientists not employed in ISI including one representative from the Planning Commission of India and one representative of the UGC, representatives of scientific and non-scientific workers of ISI, and representative from academic staff of ISI, including the Director of ISI and the Dean of Studies of ISI. The second five-year plan of India was a brainchild of Mahalanobis. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth . FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.288 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Bureau of Indian Standards ? 1.It is the national Standards Body of India working under the Ministry of Commerce 2. As a corporate body, it has 21 members drawn from Central or State Governments only 3. BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization (ISO) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India. It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 which came into effect on 23 December 1986.[2] The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BIS. As a corporate body, it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments, industry, scientific and research institutions, and consumer organisations. Its headquarters are in New Delhi, with regional offices in Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai, Chandigarh and Delhiand 20 branch offices. It also works as WTO-TBT enquiry point for India. BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization (ISO) It represents India in the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) and the World Standards Service Network (WSSN). Product Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily. For, some of the products like Milk powder, Drinking Water, LPG Cylinders, Thermometers etc., certification is mandatory. Because these products are concerned with health and safety National Institute of Training for Standardization (NITS) It is a training institute of BIS which is set up in 1995. It is functioning from Noida, Uttar Pradesh, India.[7] The primary activities of NITS are:- • In-House and Open Training Programme for Industry • International Training Programme for Developing Countries (Commonwealth countries) • Training Programme to its employees. Indian Standards Bill, 2015 The main objectives of the proposed legislation are:- • To establish the Bureau of Indian standards(BIS) as the National Standards Body of India. • The Bureau to perform its functions through a governing council, which will consist of President and other members. • To include goods, services and systems, besides articles and processes under the standardization regime. • To enable the government to bring under the mandatory certification regime for such articles, processes or service which it considers necessary from the point of view of health, safety, environment, prevention of deceptive practices, consumer security etc. This will help consumers receive ISI certified products and will also help in prevention of import of sub-standard products. • To allow multiple types of simplified conformity assessment schemes including self-declaration of conformity (SDOC) against any standard which will give multiple simplified options to manufacturers to adhere to standards and get a certificate of conformity, thus improving the 'ease of doing business'. • To enable the Central Government to appoint any authority in addition to the Bureau of Indian Standards, to verify the conformity of products and services to a standard and issue certificate of conformity. • To enable the Government to implement mandatory hallmarking of precious metals articles. • To strengthen penal provisions for better effective compliance and enable compounding of offences for violations. • To provide recall, including product liability of products bearing the Standard Mark, but not conforming to relevant Indian Standards. • Repeal of the BIS Act of 1986. • The Bureau of Indian Standards Act 2016 received the assent of the President on 21 March 2016 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.287 For which of the following products ISO certification is mandatory ? 1. Thermometers 2. Drinking water 3. LPG Cylinders Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Product Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily. For, some of the products like Milk powder, Drinking Water, LPG Cylinders, Thermometers etc., certification is mandatory. Because these products are concerned with health and safety FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.286 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the 2,4-D ( 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) ? 1. In agriculture, it is the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing of crops apart from weeds 2. Mostly grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected by this herbicide Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (usually called 2,4-D) is an organic compound with the chemical formula C8H6Cl2O3. It is a systemic herbicide which selectively kills most broadleaf weeds by causing uncontrolled growth in them, but leaves most grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected. It can be found in numerous commercial lawn herbicide mixtures, and is widely used as a weedkiller on cereal crops, pastures, and orchards. 2,4-D was one of the ingredients in Agent Orange, a herbicide widely used during the Vietnam War 2,4-D is primarily used as a selective herbicide which kills many terrestrial and aquatic broadleaf weeds, but not grasses. It acts by mimicking the action of the plant growth hormone auxin, which results in uncontrolled growth and eventually death in susceptible plants In agriculture, it was the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing weeds but not crops. It is often used by government agencies to control the spread of invasive, noxious and non-native weed species and prevent them from crowding out native species, and also to control many poisonous weeds such as poison ivy and poison oak Men who work with 2,4-D are at risk for abnormally shaped sperm and thus fertility problems; Residue levels in kidney were the highest 2,4-D is a synthetic auxin, which is a class of plant hormones. FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA Q.285 MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for which of the following ? 1. Demand deposits 2. Forward rate agreements 3. Term deposits Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B The MIBID/MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for majority of deals struck for Interest Rate Swaps, Forward Rate Agreements, Floating Rate Debentures and Term Deposits. MIBOR - Mumbai Inter-Bank Offer Rate The Committee for the Development of the Debt Market that had studied and recommended the modalities for the development for a benchmark rate for the call money market. Accordingly, NSE had developed and launched the NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Bid Rate (MIBID) and NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Offer Rate (MIBOR) for the overnight money market on June 15, 1998. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.284 Consider the following : 1. Ambubachi mela : Assam 2. Anthurium Festival : Arunachal Pradesh 3. Kut festival : Mizoram Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. B Ambubachi mela : Assam Anthurium Festival : Mizoram Kut-Festival Of Kuki-Chin-Mizo: It is an autumn festival of the different tribes of Kuki-Chin-Mizo groups of Manipur. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.283 Which among the following reports are released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) ? 1. Trade and Development Report 2. World development report 3. World investment report Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body. UNCTAD is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade, investment, and development issues. The organization's goals are to: "maximize the trade, investment and development opportunities of developing countries and assist them in their efforts to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basis. The conference ordinarily meets once in four years; the permanent secretariat is in Geneva. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development was established to provide a forum where the developing countries could discuss the problems relating to their economic development. Currently, UNCTAD has 194 member states and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. UNCTAD has 400 staff members and a bi-annual (2010–2011) regular budget of $138 million in core expenditures and $72 million in extra-budgetary technical assistance funds. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.[2] There are non-governmental organizations participating in the activities of UNCTAD UNCTAD produces a number of topical reports, including: • The Trade and Development Report • The Trade and Environment Review • The World Investment Report • The Economic Development in Africa Report • The Least Developed Countries Report • UNCTAD Statistics • The Information Economy Report • The Review of Maritime Transport • The International Accounting and Reporting Issues Annual Review • The Technology and Innovation Repor UNCTAD conducts technical cooperation programmes such as ASYCUDA, DMFAS, EMPRETEC and WAIPA. In addition, UNCTAD conducts certain technical cooperation in collaboration with the World Trade Organization through the joint International Trade Centre (ITC), a technical cooperation agency targeting operational and enterprise-oriented aspects of trade development. UNCTAD hosts the Intergovernmental Working Group of Experts on International Standards of Accounting and Reporting (ISAR). FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA Q.282 With reference to the news, what are AD Category-I banks ? A) It is the form of Smart Banking initiative that enables banks to optimise customer engagement models B) These are the business correspondents that extend small credit on behalf of the banks C) These are the banks that are equipped with technology for automated transaction of cash D) These are the banks that deal with the conversion of currency notes, coins or travellers' cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees & Vice versa Ans. D Authorised Dealer(AD) category 1 bank is one of the three types of authorised money changer approved by the RBI under Foreign Exchange Management Act(FEMA) with the other two being Authorised Dealer category 2 and Full Fledged Money Changer(FFMC). They deal with the conversion of currency notes, coins or travellers' cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees and vice versa. Their objective is to provide easier foreign exchange facilties for travellers and tourists, including NRIs. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.281 Consider the following : 1. Hemis Gompa : Ladakh 2. Chhipla Jaat : Himachal Pradesh 3. Jhiri Mela : Jammu & Kashmir Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C Some of the festivals celebrated in the Uttarakhand region are Basant Panchami, Bhitauli, Harela, Phool Dei, Batsavitri, Ganga Dusshera or Dasar, Dikar Puja, Olgia or Ghee Sankranti, Khatarua, Ghuian Ekadashi, Chhipla Jaat, Kandali, Janopunya, Kumaon Holi (including Khari Holi and Baithaki Holi) and Makar Sankranti. The most commonly celebrated festivals in Kashmir are Lohri, Baisakhi, Bahu mela, the Jhiri mela, the Mansar food and craft mela, Chaitre Chaudash mela and the Purmandal mela. Hemis Gompa, the largest and richest Buddhist monastery in Ladakh plays host to the popular yearly festival day called Hemis Festival. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.280 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Visa On Arrival ? 1. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year 2. The duration of stay can be extended for one year 3. Double entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa & Triple entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. B Tourist visa scheme Foreign citizens possessing an Overseas Citizen of India registration certificate or holders of a Persons of Indian Origin Card are exempt from visa requirements, have the right of domicile in India and are allowed unlimited entries into India. Citizens of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, mainland China, Nepal or Pakistan are generally not entitled to hold Overseas Indian Citizenship. Visa On Arrival: Citizens of the following countries can apply for a visa on arrival (VOA) in Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata or Mumbai. The visa is issued for business, tourist, medical and conference categories, and has a validity of 30 days.[3] The cost is ₹2,000. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year.[4][1] Alternatively, foreign citizens eligible for a VOA can apply for an e-Visa instead if they intend to visit India for a period longer than 30 days, or if they intend to enter the country through an airport or seaport not covered by the VOA scheme. Double entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa and e-Business Visa. Triple entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa. The duration of stay cannot be extended FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.279 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the whitley awards ? 1. These are awarded annually by the WWF for the national & regional conservation 2. It also serves as a forum between employers and employees for the conservation of wildlife Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Whitley awards – For Wildlife conservation The Whitley Awards are made annually by the Whitley Fund for Nature (WFN) to recognise and celebrate effective national and regional conservation leaders across the globe. The awards are worth £35,000 (2017) and are now amongst the most high profile of conservation prizes - they have been called the "Green Oscars". FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.278 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Loro account ? 1. Commercial banks maintains their own loro accounts with the authorization from RBI 2. A balance on loro account represents central bank money in the regarded currency Select the correct answer using the codes given below “ A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B The central bank maintains loro accounts for a group of commercial banks, the so-called direct payment banks. A balance on such a loro account (it is a nostro account in the view of the commercial bank) represents central bank money in the regarded currency. Since central bank money currently exists mainly in the form of electronic records (electronic money) rather than in the form of paper or coins (physical money), open market operations can be conducted by simply increasing or decreasing (crediting or debiting) the amount of electronic money that a bank has in its reserve account at the central bank. Open market operations An open market operation (OMO) is an activity by a central bank to give (or take) liquidity in its currency to (or from) a bank or a group of banks. The central bank can either buy or sell government bonds in the open market (this is where the name was historically derived from) or, in what is now mostly the preferred solution, enter into a repo or secured lending transaction with a commercial bank: the central bank gives the money as a deposit for a defined period and synchronously takes an eligible asset as collateral. A central bank uses OMO as the primary means of implementing monetary policy. The usual aim of open market operations is - aside from supplying commercial banks with liquidity and sometimes taking surplus liquidity from commercial banks - to manipulate the short-term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and thus indirectly control the total money supply, in effect expanding money or contracting the money supply. This involves meeting the demand of base money at the target interest rate by buying and selling government securities, or other financial instruments. Monetary targets, such as inflation, interest rates, or exchange rates, are used to guide this implementation Classical economic theory postulates a distinctive relationship between the supply of central bank money and short-term interest rates: like for a commodity, a higher demand for central bank money would increase its price, the interest rate. When there is an increased demand for base money, the central bank must act if it wishes to maintain the short-term interest rate. It does this by increasing the supply of base money: it goes to the open market to buy a financial asset, such as government bonds. • Under a currency board open market operations would be used to achieve and maintain a fixed exchange rate with relation to some foreign currency. • Under a gold standard, notes would be convertible to gold, and so open market operations could be used to keep the value of a fiat currency constant relative to gold. The two traditional type of OMO’s used by RBI: 1. Outright purchase (PEMO): Is outright buying or selling of government securities. (Permanent). 2. Repurchase agreement (REPO): Is short term, and are subject to repurchase The RBI brought together a Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). It commenced in June, 2000, and it was set up to oversee liquidity on a daily basis and to monitor market interest rates. For the LAF, two rates are set by the RBI: repo rate and reverse repo rate. The repo rate is applicable while selling securities to RBI (daily injection of liquidity), while the reverse repo rate is applicable when banks buy back those securities (daily absorption of liquidity). Also, these interest rates fixed by the RBI also help in determining other market interest rates on the recommendations of the Working Group of RBI on instruments of Sterilization (December, 2003), a new scheme known as the Market stabilization scheme (MSS) was set up. The LAF and the OMO’s were dealing with day-to-day liquidity management, whereas the MSS was set up to sterilize the liquidity absorption and make it more enduring According to this scheme, the RBI issues additional T-bills and securities to absorb the liquidity. And the money goes into the Market Stabilization scheme Account (MSSA). The RBI cannot use this account for paying any interest or discounts and cannot credit any premiums to this account. The Government, in collaboration with the RBI, fixes a ceiling amount on the issue of these instruments. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.277 Which among the following species is/ are not the extinct species under the IUCN status ? 1. Steller’s sea cow 2. Short tailed albatross 3. Spectacled cormorant Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) Only 2 Ans. D The Bering Sea is a marginal sea of the Pacific Ocean.It comprises a deep water basin, which then rises through a narrow slope into the shallower water above the continental shelves. There is a small portion of the Kula Plate in the Bering Sea. The Kula Plate is an ancient tectonic plate that used to subduct under Alaska The sea supports many whale species including the beluga, humpback whale, bowhead whale, gray whale and blue whale, the vulnerable sperm whale, and the endangered fin whale, sei whale and the rarest in the world, the North Pacific right whale. Other marine mammals include walrus, Steller sea lion, northern fur seal, orca and polar bear. Seabird species include tufted puffins, the endangered short-tailed albatross, spectacled eider, and red-legged kittiwakes. Two Bering Sea species, the Steller's sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas) and spectacled cormorant (Phalacrocorax perspicillatus), are extinct because of overexploitation by man. In addition, a small subspecies of Canada goose, the Bering Canada goose (Branta canadensis asiatica) is extinct due to overhunting and introduction of rats to their breeding islands. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.276 With reference to the news, what is 20:80 scheme of gold ? A) It is the central sponsored scheme representing the highest share of the central government as compared to the state government B) It was introduced to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficit C) It is the central sponsored scheme for increasing the visible & invisible exports D) It was introduced to enhance the gold exports thereby reducing the fiscal deficit Ans. B The 20:80 import rule linking imports to exports was introduced last year to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficit that had hit a record of 4.8 per cent of GDP. Although legal import of gold declined in the subsequent months, the 20:80 rule was not only encouraging smuggling but it was also misused by many traders. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.275 Which among the following is/are the targets that have to be achieved under the AMRUT scheme ? 1. Tap water & sewerage facilities 2. Internet & wifi facilities 3. Pollution reduction Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in June 2015 with the focus of the urban renewal projects is to establish infrastructure that could ensure adequate robust sewage networks and water supply for urban transformation. Rajasthan was the first state in the country to submit State Annual Action Plan under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT). About ₹1 lakh crore (US$16 billion) investment on urban development under Smart Cities Mission and the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation of 500 cities has already been approved by the government Some of the broad targets of AMRUT scheme are ascertaining that every one has access to tap water and sewerage facilities, greenery like parks and open spaces are well maintained, digital and smart facilities like weather prediction, internet and WiFi facilities, pollution reduction by encouraging the public for using cheaper but secure public transport etc. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.274 As per Vavilov’s centre of origin which among the following comes under the Indo-Burma region ? 1. Assam 2. North West Punjab 3. Burma Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.273 Consider the following : 1. Melghat Tiger reserve : Maharashtra 2.Tansa Wildlife sanctuary : Tripura 3. Purna wildlife sanctuary : Gujarat Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D In Gujarat, the owlet can be found in Purna Wildlife Sanctuary Melghat Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra The forest owlet remains critically endangered, and the population in 2015 was estimated by Birdlife International at less than 250. An individual was located in Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary in the Thane district in 2014 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.272 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the subatomic particles Baryon ? 1. These are the quark-based particles that participate in the strong interaction 2. They are similar in functioning as compared to the lepton & Mesons 3. Protons & neutrons are the only baryons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C A baryon is a composite subatomic particle made up of three quarks (a triquark, as distinct from mesons, which are composed of one quark and one antiquark). Baryons and mesons belong to the hadron family of particles, which are the quark-based particles. As quark-based particles, baryons participate in the strong interaction, whereas leptons, which are not quark-based, do not. The most familiar baryons are the protons and neutrons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe. Electrons (the other major component of the atom) are leptons. Each baryon has a corresponding antiparticle (antibaryon) where quarks are replaced by their corresponding antiquarks. For example, a proton is made of two up quarks and one down quark; and its corresponding antiparticle, the antiproton, is made of two up antiquarks and one down antiquark. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.271 Which among the following is/are the examples of the e-liquids that are used in e-cigarettes ? 1. Water 2. Nicotine 3. Glycerine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D An electronic cigarette or e-cigarette is a handheld electronic device that tries to create the feeling of tobacco smoking. It works by heating a liquid to generate an aerosol, commonly called a "vapor", that the user inhales. Using e-cigarettes is sometimes called vaping. The liquid in the e-cigarette, called e-liquid, is usually made of nicotine, propylene glycol, glycerine, and flavorings. Not all e-liquids contain nicotine The health risks of e-cigarettes are uncertain. They are likely safer than tobacco cigarettes, but the long-term health effects are not known They can help some smokers quit. When used by non-smokers, e-cigarettes can lead to nicotine addiction, and there is concern that children could start smoking after using e-cigarettes Less serious adverse effects include throat and mouth irritation, vomiting, nausea, and coughing The majority of toxic chemicals found in tobacco smoke are absent in e-cigarette aerosol. Those present are mostly below 1% corresponding levels in tobacco smoke The emergence of e-cigarettes has given cannabis smokers a new method of inhaling cannabinoids. E-cigarettes differ from traditional marijuana cigarettes in several respects. It is assumed that vaporizing cannabinoids at lower temperatures is safer because it produces smaller amounts of toxic substances than the hot combustion of a marijuana cigarette E-liquid is the mixture used in vapor products such as e-cigarettes and generally consists of propylene glycol, glycerin, water, nicotine, and flavorings Smoking a traditional cigarette yields between 0.5 and 1.5 mg of nicotine, but the nicotine content of the cigarette is only weakly correlated with the levels of nicotine in the smoker's bloodstream Nicotine in tobacco smoke is absorbed into the bloodstream rapidly, and e-cigarette vapor is relatively slow in this regard. The concentration of nicotine in e-liquid ranges up to 36 mg/Ml FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM Q.270 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Lingayatism ? 1. Lingayatism was founded by the Basava in the 11th century 2. Lingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire 3. The Lingayats buried their dead in the Dhyana mudra with their Ishta linga in their left hand. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 3 Ans. B Lingayatism is a distinct Shaivite religious tradition in India. Its worship is centered on Hindu god Shiva as the universal god in the iconographic form of Ishtalinga. The adherents of this faith are known as Lingayats. Lingayatism was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava and spread by his followers, called Sharanas.[1] Lingayatism emphasizes qualified monism and bhakti (loving devotion) to Shiva, with philosophical foundations similar to those of the 11th–12th-century South Indian philosopher Ramanuja The terms Lingayatism and Veerashaivism have been used synonymously, and Lingayats also referred to as Veerashaivas.[2][3][4]Lingayatism is considered a Hindu sect,[2][5] but some Lingayats have sought legal recognition as a religion distinct from Hinduism.[2][6]Lingayatism shares beliefs with Indian religions, such as about reincarnation, samsara and karma Contemporary Lingayatism is influential in South India, especially in the state of Karnataka.[10] Today, Lingayats, along with Shaiva Siddhanta followers, Tirunelveli Saiva Pillai, Nadar, Naths, Pashupaths of Nepal, Kapalikas and others constitute the Shaiva population The Lingayat iṣṭaliṅga is an oval-shaped emblem symbolising Parashiva, the absolute reality, and is worn on the body by a cord hung around the neck. Basava is credited with founding Lingayatism and its secular practices.[2] He was a 12th-century Hindu philosopher, statesman, Kannada poet in the Shiva-focussed Bhakti movement and a social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka, India Basavanna spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known as Vachanaas. Basavanna rejected gender or social discrimination, as well as some extant practices such as the wearing of sacred thread,[19] and replaced this with the ritual of wearing Ishtalinga necklace, with an image of the Shiva Liṅga Lingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire.[22] The Lingayats likely were a part of the reason why Vijayanagara succeeded in territorial expansion and in withstanding the Deccan Sultanate wars. The Lingayat text Sunya sampadane grew out of the scholarly discussions in a Anubhava Mantap, and according to Bill Aitken, these were "compiled at the Vijayanagara court during the reign of Praudha Deva Raya Similarly, the scripture of Lingayatism Basava Purana was completed in 1369 during the reign of Vijayanagara ruler Bukka Raya I Lingayat (Veerashaiva) thinkers rejected the custodial hold of Brahmins over the Vedas and the shastras, but they did not outright reject the Vedic knowledge.[29][30] The 13th-century Telugu Virashaiva poet Palkuriki Somanatha, author of Basava Purana – a scripture of Veerashaivas, for example asserted, "Virashaivism fully conformed to the Vedas and the shastras Lingayatism teaches a path to an individual's spiritual progress is viewed, and describes it as a six-stage Satsthalasiddhanta. This concept progressively evolves the individual starting with the phase of a devotee, Shunya in a series of Kannada language texts is equated with the Virashaiva concept of the Supreme. In particular, the Shunya Sampadane texts present the ideas of Allama Prabhuin a form of dialogue, where shunya is that void and distinctions which a spiritual journey seeks to fill and eliminate. It is the described as state of union of one's soul with the infinite Shiva, the state of blissful moksha.[3 This Lingayat concept is similar to shunya Brahma concept found in certain texts of Vaishnavism, particularly in Odiya, such as the poetic Panchasakhas. It explains the Nirguna Brahman idea of Vedanta, that is the eternal unchanging metaphysical reality as "personified void". However, both in Lingayatism and various flavors of Vaishnavism such as Mahima Dharma, the idea of Shunya is closer to the Hindu concept of metaphysical Brahman, rather than to the Śūnyatā concept of Buddhism.[35] However, there is some overlap, such as in the works of Bhima Bhoi. The Lingayats always wear the Ishtalinga held with a necklace.[2] The Istalinga is made up of light gray slate stone coated with fine durable thick black paste of cow dung ashes mixed with some suitable oil to withstand wear and tear. Sometime it is made up of ashes mixed with clarified butter. The coating is called Kanti (covering) The Lingayats bury their dead. The dead are buried in the Dhyana mudra (meditating position) with their Ishta linga in their left hand. FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA Q.269 Which among the following is/are the examples of the payment banks ? 1. Reliance Industries 2. Sun Pharmaceuticals 3. Paytm Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Payments banks is a new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These banks can accept a restricted deposit, which is currently limited to ₹1 lakh per customer and may be increased further. These banks cannot issue loans and credit cards. Both current account and savings accounts can be operated by such banks. Payments banks can issue services like ATM cards, debit cards, net-banking and mobile-banking. Airtel has launched India's first live payments bank.[1] Paytm is the second such service to be launched in the country. India Post Payments Bank is the third entity to receive payments bank permit after Bharti Airtel and Paytm. Aditya Birla group earned payments bank permit on 3 March 2017. The voting rights will be regulated by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The bank should be fully networked from the beginning. The bank can accept utility bills. It cannot form subsidiaries to undertake non-banking activities. The bank cannot undertake lending activities. The banks will be licensed as payments banks under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and will be registered as public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. On 19 August 2015, the Reserve Bank of India gave "in-principle" licences to eleven entities to launch payments banks:[12][13] 1. Aditya Birla Nuvo 2. Airtel M Commerce Services 3. Cholamandalam Distribution Services 4. Department of Posts 5. FINO PayTech 6. National Securities Depository 7. Reliance Industries 8. Sun Pharmaceuticals 9. Paytm 10. Tech Mahindra 11. Vodafone M-Pesa The "in-principle" license is valid for 18 months within which the entities must fulfil the requirements. They are not allowed to engage in banking activities within the period. The RBI will consider grant full licenses under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, after it is satisfied that the conditions have been fulfilled. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.268 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Central Vigilance Commision ? 1. Prime Minister & the Minister of Home Affairs gives recommendation on the appointment of the commissioners 2. CVC have the powers to register criminal cases as well as economic crimes 3. CVC can direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 1 Ans. D Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India, advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work. The Commission shall consist of: • A Central Vigilance Commissioner - Chairperson; • Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners - Members; The CVC is not an investigating agency. The only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government which is done r.[6] Corruption investigations against government officials can proceed only after the government permits them. The CVC publishes a list of cases where permissions are pending, some of which may be more than a year old The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member). The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed. The Secretariat consists of a Secretary of the rank of Additional Secretary to the Govt of India, one officer of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Govt of India, ten officers of the rank of Director/Deputy Secretary, four Under Secretaries and office staff • CVC is only an advisory body. Central Government Departments are free to either accept or reject CVC's advice in corruption cases.[13] • CVC does not have adequate resources compared with number of complaints that it receives. It is a very small set up with a sanctioned staff strength of 299.[1] Whereas, it is supposed to check corruption in more than 1500 central government departments and ministries.[14] • CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such a permission has to be obtained from the concerned department. • CVC does not have powers to register criminal case. It deals only with vigilance or disciplinary cases. Appointments to CVC are indirectly under the control of Govt of India, though the leader of the Opposition (in Lok Sabha) is a member of the Committee to select CVC and VCs. But the Committee considers candidates put up before it. These candidates are decided by the Government FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE Q.267 With reference to the Dravidian architecture, What are Agamas ? A) These are the collection of the scriptures constituting the methods of temple construction B) These are the code of conduct that is to be followed by the Bhikshus C) These are the texts describing the discourse of the tirthankara D) These are the manuscripts in Indo-Aryan languages describing the spread of the templesof the southern India Ans. A Traditional Dravidian architecture and symbolism are also based on Agamas. The Agamas are non-vedic in origin and have been dated either as post-vedic texts or as pre-vedic compositions.The Agamas are a collection of Tamil and Sanskrit scriptures chiefly constituting the methods of temple construction and creation of murti, worship means of deities, philosophical doctrines, meditative practices, attainment of sixfold desires and four kinds of yoga. FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE Q.266 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the scripts/texts of the Dravidian style ? 1. Mayamata and Manasara shilpa texts describes the art of building in India in south and central India 2. Brihat-samhita is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu temples Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B Mayamata and Manasara shilpa texts estimated to be in circulation by 5th to 7th century AD, is a guidebook on Dravidian style of Vastu Shastradesign, construction, sculpture and joinery technique Isanasivagurudeva paddhati is another text from the 9th century describing the art of building in India in south and central India In north India, Brihat-samhita by Varāhamihira is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual from 6th century describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu temples FRAMED FROM NIOS-INDIAN CULTURE Q.265 Consider the following : 1. Undavalli caves : Madhya Pradesh 2. Ramatheertham : Andhra Pradesh 3. Varaha Cave Temple : Mamallapuram Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 3 Ans. B Rock-cut monuments in India • Aihole has 3 Jaina temple • Badami Cave Temples • Bagh Caves • Ellora Caves has 12 Buddhist, 17 Hindu and 5 Jain temples.[19] • Kanheri Caves • Lenyadri Caves • Mahabalipuram • Pancha Rathas • Kazhuku Malai • Pandavleni Caves • Pitalkhora • Undavalli caves, Andhra Pradesh • Varaha Cave Temple at Mamallapuram • Masroor Temple at Kangra • Bojjannakonda Buddhist Site, Andhra Pradesh • Guntupalle Buddhist Site, Andhra Pradesh • Ramatheertham, Andhra Pradesh FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.264 Which among the following is/are the members of the Eurasian Economic Union ? 1. Belarus 2. Russia 3. Kazakhstan 4. Uzbekistan Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 3 & 4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. A It is an economic union of states located primarily in northern Eurasia. A treaty aiming for the establishment of the EAEU was signed on 29 May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus, Kazakhstan and Russia, and came into force on 1 January 2015.Treaties aiming for Armenia's and Kyrgyzstan's accession to the Eurasian Economic Union were signed on 9 October and 23 December 2014, respectively. Armenia's accession treaty came into force on 2 January 2015.Kyrgyzstan's accession treaty came into effect on 6 August 2015.[11][12] It participated in the EAEU from the day of its establishment as an acceding state The day-to-day work of the EAEU is done through the Eurasian Economic Commission (the executive body), which is a supranational body similar to European Commission. There is also a judicial body – the Court of the EAEU The Eurasian Economic Union is located at the eastern end of Europe, bounded by the Arctic in the north, the Pacific Ocean to the east and East Asia, the Middle East and part of Central Asiato the south. The council is composed of the Vice Prime Ministers of the member states. The collegium is composed of twelve commissioners, one of which is the Chairman of the board FRAMED FROM NIOS- INDIAN CULTURE Q.263 Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings ? 1. Stories of Krishna 2. Ragas & Ragnis 3. Deeds of Hamza 4. Deeds of Babur Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 3 & 4 D) Only 4 Ans. C Rajput painting, also called Rajasthani painting, evolved and flourished in the royal courts of Rajputana in India. Each Rajputana kingdom evolved a distinct style, but with certain common features. Rajput paintings depict a number of themes, events of epics like the Ramayana. Miniatures in manuscripts or single sheets to be kept in albums were the preferred medium of Rajput painting, but many paintings were done on the walls of palaces, inner chambers of the forts, havelis, particularly, the havelis of Shekhawati, the forts and palaces built by ShekhawatRajputs. The colours were extracted from certain minerals, plant sources, conch shells, and were even derived by processing precious stones. Gold and silver were used. The preparation of desired colours was a lengthy process, sometimes taking weeks. Brushes used were very fine. Elements, such as distinct portraiture, utilized by popular Mughal artists (Govardhan, Hashim, etc.) are not found in Rajput works. Likewise, Rajput techniques are not predominantly seen in Mughal paintings. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.262 Which among the following can remove cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems ? 1. Calcium hypochlorite 2. Copper sulphate 3. Simazine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Several chemicals can eliminate cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems. They include: calcium hypochlorite, copper sulphate, cupricide, and simazine. Cyanobacteria can produce neurotoxins, cytotoxins, endotoxins, and hepatotoxins Oncolites are sedimentary structures composed of oncoids, which are layered structures formed by cyanobacterial growth. Oncolites are similar to stromatolites, but instead of forming columns, they form approximately spherical structures that were not attached to the underlying substrate as they formed. Cyanobacteria use the energy of sunlight to drive photosynthesis, a process where the energy of light is used to synthesize organic compounds from carbon dioxide. Because they are aquatic organisms, they typically employ several strategies which are collectively known as a "carbon concentrating mechanism" to aid in the acquisition of inorganic carbon (CO2or bicarbonate). Cyanobacteria can be found in almost every terrestrial and aquatic habitat—oceans, fresh water, damp soil, temporarily moistened rocks in deserts, bare rock and soil, and even Antarctic rocks. They can occur as planktonic cells or form phototrophic biofilms. They are found in almost every endolithic ecosystem. A few are endosymbionts in lichens, plants, various protists, or sponges and provide energy for the host. Some live in the fur of sloths, providing a form of camouflage Aquatic cyanobacteria are known for their extensive and highly visible blooms that can form in both freshwater and marine environments. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.261 Which among the following is/are the right tributary of the river ganga ? 1. Kosi 2. Gandak 3. Yamuna 4. Ramganga Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. D Ganga : >Left tributaries:  Ramganga  Gomati  Ghaghar  Gandak  Kosi >Right tributaries:  Yamuna  Son Hugli FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.260 Which among the following plant(s) is/are considered as the Weeds ? 1. Dandelion 2. Burdrock 3. Amarnath Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Weeds : Dandelion, Burdrock, Lamb’s quarter, Amarnath, Cornockle Many plants known as weeds can have beneficial properties. A number of weeds, such as the dandelion (Taraxacum) and lamb's quarter, are edible, and their leaves or roots may be used for food or herbal medicine. Burdock is common over much of the world, and is sometimes used to make soup and medicine in East Asia. An example of a crop weed that is grown in gardens is the corncockle, (Agrostemma githago), which was a common weed in European wheat fields, but is now sometimes grown as a garden plant. Weeds may also act as a "living mulch", providing ground cover that reduces moisture loss and prevents erosion. Weeds may also improve soil fertility; dandelions, for example, bring up nutrients like calcium and nitrogen from deep in the soil with their tap root, and clover hosts nitrogen-fixing bacteria in its roots, fertilizing the soil directly. Weed control is important in agriculture. Methods include hand cultivation with hoes, powered cultivation with cultivators, smothering with mulch, lethal wilting with high heat, burning, or chemical attack with herbicides. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.259 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve ? 1. It is composed of Neyyar & Peppara Wildlife Sanctuaries only 2. This biosphere reserve is dominated by Asian elephants & Nilgiri Tahr Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.D Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve became part of World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2016. Is also under UNESCO's world list of biosphere reserve It is composed of Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas of Achencoil, Thenmala, Konni, Punalur, Thiruvananthapuram Divisions and Agasthyavanam Special Division in Kerala.[9] Inclusion of adjoining areas of Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu has been approved. ABR includes the Indian Ecoregions of South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, South Western Ghats montane rain forestsand Shola. Rare animals include the tiger, Asian Elephant, and Nilgiri Tahr. Agastyamalai is also home to the Kanikaran Kanikkarans are the Original tribal Settlers in Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.258 Which among the following is/are true in context with the 5-star rated celing fans ? 1. These are 50% more energy efficient as compared to the conventional fans 2. These are rated at 75 watts as compared to earlier fans at 50 watts Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D These fans are 30% more energy efficient as compared to conventional fans The earlier fans were rated at 75 Watts, but the new fans are rated at 50 Watts (30% savings). FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.257 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Gene Transfer Format ? 1. It is a tab-delimited doc format specific to the gene information 2. It reduces problems with the interchange of data between groups. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B The Gene transfer format (GTF) is a file format used to hold information about gene structure. It is a tab-delimited text format based on the general feature format (GFF), but contains some additional conventions specific to gene information. A significant feature of the GTF is that it is validatable: given a sequence and a GTF file, one can check that the format is correct. This significantly reduces problems with the interchange of data between groups. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.256 With reference to the geographic knowledge, what are Phantom islands ? A) These are the islands that are situated beyond the continental shelf of the ocean B) These are the lost lands that were existing during prehistory, but disappeared as a result of catastrophic geological phenomena C) These are the volcanic islands on the edge of the Indian and Burmese tectonic plates. D) These are the land masses formerly believed to exist in the historical age, but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledge Ans. D Phantom islands, as opposed to lost lands, are land masses formerly believed by cartographers to exist in the historical age, but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledge. Terra Australis is a phantom continent. While a few phantom islands originated from literary works (an example is Ogygia from Homer's Odyssey), most phantom islands are the result of navigational errors. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.255 With reference to the news, which of the following is correct with respect to the ADDU Declaration ? A) It is the declaration by the BRICS members to improve the global economic situation and reforming financial institutions, B) It is a twenty points declaration issued by the SSARC members with the aim of building bridges C) It is the declaration in the Paris summit to reduce the greenhouse gas emissions D) It is the declaration issued in the Maldives conference highlighting the terrorist & social issues Ans. B • Addu is the second largest city of Mamldives (capital is Male), where 17th SAARC conference was held. (September 2011) • Theme of this Addu summit : Building Bridges. • The leaders of SAARC Nations, issued a 20-points declaration here, which is known as “Addu Declaration”. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.254 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Generic drugs ? 1. These are manufactured by the private companies under the government regulations 2. These contain the same active ingredients as brand formulations but with reduced excipients Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D

A generic drug is a pharmaceutical drug that is equivalent to a brand-name product in dosage, strength, route of administration, quality, performance, and intended use A generic drug must contain the same active ingredients as the original brand-name formulation. Biopharmaceuticals such as monoclonal antibodies differ biologically from small molecule drugs. Generic versions of these drugs, known as biosimilars, are typically regulated under an extended set of rules. They may not be associated with a particular company, generic drugs are usually subject to government regulations in the countries where they are dispensed. They are labeled with the name of the manufacturer and a generic nonproprietary name such as the United States Adopted Name or international nonproprietary name of the drug. A generic drug must contain the same active ingredients as the original brand-name formulation.


FRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICATIONS

Q.253 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Doldrums 			:	50 N to 50 S

2. Horse latitudes 		:	250 to 350 N & S 

3. Polar 			:	High poles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Coniferous forests are located between 500& 700 N


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.252 Which among the following languages has been awarded the distinction of classical language ?

1. Marathi

2. Malayalam

3. Kannada

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 2 & 3

B) 1 & 2

C) 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. A

The Government of India has awarded the distinction of classical language to Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam and Odia. The southern Indian languages are from the Dravidian family. The Dravidian languages are classified in four groups: North, Central (Kolami–Parji), South-Central (Telugu–Kui) and South Dravidian (Tamil-Kannada) Each of the northern Indian languages had different influences. For example, Hindustani was strongly influenced by Sanskrit, Persian, and Arabic, leading to the emergence of Modern Standard Hindi and Modern Standard Urdu as registers of the Hindustani language

FRAMED FROM LUCENT & WIKIPEDIA

Q.251 Which among the following is/are correct ?

1. Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from one eukaryote to another eukaryote only

2. Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from one animal cell to plant cell

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B

Vector-mediated gene transfer is carried out either by Agrobacterium-mediated transformation or by use of plant viruses as vectors. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil-borne, Gram-negative bacterium. It is rod shaped and motile, and belongs to the bacterial family of Rhizobiaceae. A. tumefaciens is a phytopathogen, and is treated as the nature’s most effective plant genetic engineer.

FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE

Q.250 Excessive accumulation of nitrates in water body can result in :

1. Proliferation of biodiversity

2. Algae blooms

3. Acidification

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. B


Q.249 Which of the following is not true of the Western Ghats?

A) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western Ghats as ‘World Heritage Sites’ in 2012

B) It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world

C) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks

D) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil reserves

Ans. D

The range runs north to south along the western edge of the Deccan Plateau, and separates the plateau from a narrow coastal plain, called Konkan, along the Arabian Sea. A total of thirty-nine properties including national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserve forests were designated as world heritage sites - twenty in Kerala, ten in Karnataka, five in Tamil Nadu and four in Maharashtra.
The range starts near the border of Gujarat and Maharashtra, south of the Tapti river, and runs approximately 1,600 km (990 mi) through the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu ending at Swamithoppe, near Kanyakumari, at the southern tip of India.
The Western Ghats block southwest monsoon winds from reaching the Deccan Plateau.The average elevation is around 1,200 m (3,900 ft).
The area is one of the world's ten "Hottest biodiversity hotspots" and has over 7,402 species of flowering plants, 1,814 species of non-flowering plants, 139 mammal species, 508 bird species, 179 amphibian species, 6,000 insects species and 290 freshwater fish species; it is likely that many undiscovered species live in the Western Ghats. At least 325 globally threatened species occur in the Western Ghats.
The Western Ghats are the mountainous faulted and eroded edge of the Deccan Plateau.
Basalt is the predominant rock found in the hills reaching a thickness of 3 km (2 mi). Other rock types found are charnockites, granite gneiss, khondalites, leptynites, metamorphic gneisses with detached occurrences of crystalline limestone, iron ore, dolerites and anorthosites. Residual laterite and bauxite ores are also found in the southern hills.
The Western Ghats extend from the Satpura Range in the north, stretching from Gujarat to Tamil Nadu. It traverses south past the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and Kerala. Major gaps in the range are the Goa Gap, between the Maharashtra and Karnataka sections, and the Palghat Gap on the Tamil Nadu and Kerala border between the Nilgiri Hills and the Anaimalai Hills.
The northern portion of the narrow coastal plain between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea is known as the Konkan, the central portion is called Kanara and the southern portion is called Malabar. The foothill region east of the Ghats in Maharashtra is known as Desh, while the eastern foothills of the central Karnataka state is known as Malenadu.[13] The range is known as Sahyadri in Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Western Ghats meets the Eastern Ghats at Nilgiris in northwestern Tamil Nadu. Nilgiris connects Biligiriranga Hills in southeastern Karnataka with the Shevaroys and Tirumala hills. South of the Palghat Gap are the Anamala Hills, located in western Tamil Nadu and Kerala with smaller ranges further south, including the Cardamom Hills, then Aryankavu pass, Aralvaimozhi pass near Kanyakumari. In the southern part of the range is Anamudi (2,695 metres (8,842 ft)), the highest peak in Western Ghats.
The Western Ghats form one of the four watersheds of India, feeding the perennial rivers of India. The major river systems originating in the Western Ghats include Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna, Thamiraparani and Tungabhadra. Majority of streams draining the Western Ghats join these rivers and carry large volume of water during the monsoon months. These rivers flow to the east due to the gradient of the land and drain out into the Bay of Bengal. Major tributaries include Kali, Bhadra, Bhavani, Bhima, Malaprabha, Ghataprabha, Hemavathi and Kabini. Periyar, Bharathappuzha, Netravati, Sharavathi, Mandovi and Zuari rivers flow westwards towards the Western Ghats, draining into the Arabian Sea and are fast-moving, owing to the steeper gradient.
Most notable of these projects are the Koyna in Maharashtra, Linganmakki and Sivasamudram in Karnataka, Mettur and Pykara in Tamil Nadu, Parambikulam and Idukki in Kerala
Talakaveri is the source of the river Kaveri and the Kuduremukha range is the source of the Tungabhadra. Western Ghats have several man-made lakes and reservoirs with major lakes at Ooty (34 hectares (84 acres)) in Nilgiris, Kodaikanal (26 hectares (64 acres)) and Berijam in Palani Hills, Pookode lake, Devikulam (6 hectares (15 acres)) and Letchmi (2 hectares (4.9 acres)) in Kerala.
The eastern region of the Western Ghats which lie in the rain shadow, receive far less rainfall of about 100 centimetres (39 in) resulting in an average rainfall of 250 centimetres (98 in) across regions.
The Western Ghats are home to four tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forest ecoregions – the North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, North Western Ghats montane rain forests, South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, and South Western Ghats montane rain forests.
Above 1,000 meters are the South Western Ghats montane rain forests, also cooler and wetter than the surrounding lowland forests, and dominated by evergreen trees, although some montane grasslands and stunted forests can be found at the highest elevations. The South Western Ghats montane rain forests are the most species-rich ecologic region in peninsular India; eighty percent of the flowering plant species of the entire Western Ghats range are found in this ecologic region.
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve comprising 5,500 square kilometres (2,100 sq mi) of the evergreen forests of Nagarahole and deciduous forests of Bandipur in Karnataka, adjoining regions of Wayanad-Mukurthi in Kerala and Mudumalai National Park-Sathyamangalam in Tamil Nadu forms the largest contiguous protected area in the Western Ghats.[20] Silent Valley in Kerala is among the last tracts of virgin tropical evergreen forest in India
There are at least 139 mammal species. Of the 16 endemic mammals, 13 are threatened and amongst the 32 threatened species include the critically endangered Malabar large-spotted civet, the endangered lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri tahr, Bengal tiger and Indian elephants, the vulnerable Indian leopard, Nilgiri langur and gaur
There are at least 16 species of birds endemic to the Western Ghats including the endangered rufous-breasted laughingthrush, the vulnerable Nilgiri wood-pigeon, white-bellied shortwing and broad-tailed grassbird, the near threatenedgrey-breasted laughingthrush, black-and-rufous flycatcher, Nilgiri flycatcher, and Nilgiri pipit, and the least concern Malabar (blue-winged) parakeet, Malabar grey hornbill, white-bellied treepie, grey-headed bulbul, rufous babbler, Wynaad laughingthrush, white-bellied blue-flycatcher and the crimson-backed sunbird.
There are at least 139 mammal species. Of the 16 endemic mammals, 13 are threatened and amongst the 32 threatened species include the critically endangered Malabar large-spotted civet, the endangered lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri tahr, Bengal tiger and Indian elephants, the vulnerable Indian leopard, Nilgiri langur and gaur.
Of the 7,402 species of flowering plants occurring in the Western Ghats, 5,588 species are native or indigenous and 376 are exotics naturalised and 1,438 species are cultivated or planted as ornamentals. Among the indigenous species, 2,253 species are endemic to India and of them, 1,273 species are exclusively confined to the Western Ghats. Apart from 593 confirmed subspecies and varieties; 66 species, 5 subspecies and 14 varieties of doubtful occurrence are also reported and therefore amounting 8,080 taxa of flowering plants


Q.248 Which among the following creeks is not associated with the state of Gujarat ?

A) Kori creek

B) Godai creek

C) Kajhar creek

D) Sir creek

Ans. B

Creek (tidal), an inlet of the sea, narrower than a cove
Sir creek :  is a 96 km (60 mi) tidal estuary on the border of India and Pakistan. The creek, which opens up into the Arabian Sea, divides the Gujarat state of Indiafrom the Sindh province of Pakistan.
The Kori Creek : is a tidal creek in the Rann of Kachchh region of the Indian state of Gujarat. This region belonging to India is not in dispute as the international border runs north of it. The Sir Creek, lying to the northwest of Kori, is disputed between India and Pakistan.


FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMICS

Q.247 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the  Corporate bond ?

1. It is issued by the corporation with maturity shorter than one year

2. These are traded in decentralized & over-the-counter markets

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B

A corporate bond is a bond issued by a corporation in order to raise financing for a variety of reasons such as to ongoing operations, M&A, or to expand business.The term is usually applied to longer-term debt instruments, with maturity of at least one year. Corporate debt instruments with maturity shorter than one year are referred to as commercial paper. According to their credit rating. Bonds rated AAA, AA, A, and BBB are High Grade, while bonds rated BB and below are High Yield. Foreign corporates issuing bonds in the US Dollar market are called Yankees and their bonds are Yankee bonds.
FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMICS

Q.246 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Central Employment Guarantee Council ?

1. It has been created under the separate act of the Parliament 

2. The council must be presided by the Governor of the central bank of India

3. Members of the council are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 

4. It is headed by the ministry of the rural development 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 4

B) 1 & 4

C) 1,2,4

D) 2 & 3

Ans. A

It is the apex body under MNREGA
Works as MNREGA watchdog
Tenure of the members is 1 year
Responsible for central monitoring & evaluation system in MNREGA
It is headed by the ministry of the rural development 


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.245 Which among the following are the sources of Bio-asphalt ?

1. Natural tree

2. Gum resins

3. Molasses

4. Waste of canola oil

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,4

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D

It is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources Non-petroleum based bitumen binders can be colored, which can reduce the temperatures of road surfaces and reduce the Urban heat islands. Bitumen can also be made from waste vacuum tower bottoms produced in the process of cleaning used motor oils, which are normally burned or dumped into land fills.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.244 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the Periyar river ?

1. Edamala

2. Gharni

3. Mullayar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. C

-Left: Cheruthoni

 - right	Mullayar,Perinjankutti,Muthirapuzha,Edamala

 Periyar river is the longest river and the river with the largest discharge potential in the Indian state of Kerala.It is one of the few perennial rivers in the region and provides drinking water for several major towns.
The source of the Periyar lies high in the Western Ghats


FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE

Q.243 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the coliform bacteria?

1. These are present in large numbers in the feces of cold-blooded animals

2. These are restricted to the aquatic environment

3. These are the common indicator of sanitary quality of foods and water

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. C

Coliform bacteria are defined as rod-shaped Gram-negative non-spore forming and motile or non-motile bacteria which can ferment lactosewith the production of acid and gas when incubated at 35–37°C. They are a commonly used indicator of sanitary quality of foods and water. Coliforms can be found in the aquatic environment, in soil and on vegetation; they are universally present in large numbers in the feces of warm-blooded animals. Whilst coliforms themselves are not normally causes of serious illness, they are easy to culture, and their presence is used to indicate that other pathogenic organisms of fecal origin may be present. Such pathogens include disease-causing bacteria, viruses, or protozoa and many multicellular parasites. Coliform procedures are performed in aerobic or anaerobic conditions.

FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.242 Consider the following :

1. Phawngpui Tlang National park 	: Tripura

2. Dzukou Valley 		       	: Manipur

3. Balphakram National Park	       	: Meghalaya

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 2 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 1 & 2

D) 1 & 2

Ans. A

Phawngpui Tlang National park : Mizoram
Mizoram :
The general geology of western Mizoram consists of repetitive succession of Neogene sedimentary rocks of Surma Group and Tipam Formation viz. sandstone, siltstone, mudstone and rare pockets of shell limestone. The eastern part is Barail Group.Mizoram, lies in seismic zone V, according to the India Meteorological Department; as with other northeastern states of India, this means the state has the highest risk of earthquakes relative to other parts of India. > The Palak lake is the biggest in Mizoram and covers 30 hectares (74 acres). > Mizoram is also called as peninsula state as it has 3 sides covered with international land and one side covered with domestic land. > Bamboo is common in the state, typically intermixed with other forest vegetation; about 9,245 km2 (44%) of state's area is bamboo bearing. > The state has two national parks and six wildlife sanctuaries - Blue Mountain (Phawngpui) National Park, Dampa Tiger Reserve (largest), Lengteng Wildlife Sanctuary, Murlen National Park, Ngengpui Wildlife Sanctuary, Tawi Wildlife Sanctuary, Khawnglung Wildlife Sanctuary, and Thorangtlang Wildlife Sanctuary.
Manipur :
It is bounded by Nagaland to the north, Mizoram to the south, and Assam to the west; Burma (Myanmar) lies to its east. has a population of almost 3 million, including the Meitei, who are the majority group in the state; the [Zo/Zomi] people such as Paite, Mizo, Lushai, Hmar, Vaiphei, Simte, Zou, Gangte, Teddim, Kuki, Naga, and Pangalpeoples, who speak a variety of Sino-Tibetan languages. The Barak River, the largest of Manipur, originates in the Manipur Hills and is joined by tributaries, such as the Irang, Maku, and Tuivai. > The rivers draining the Manipur Hills are comparatively young, due to the hilly terrain through which they flow. These rivers are corrosive and assume turbulent form in the rainy season. Important rivers draining the western area include the Maku, Barak, Jiri, Irang and Leimatak. >Rivers draining the eastern part of the state, the Yu River Basin, include the Chamu, Khunou and other short streams. > The Loktak lake is an important feature of the central plain
Meghalaya :
The state is bounded to the south by the Bangladeshi divisions of Mymensingh and Sylhet, to the west by the Bangladeshi division of Rangpur, and to the north and east by India's State of Assam. > Meghalaya has historically followed a matrilineal system where the lineage and inheritance are traced through women; the youngest daughter inherits all wealth and she also takes care of her parents > Rock formations contain rich deposits of valuable minerals like coal, limestone, uranium and sillimanite. > Meghalaya has many rivers. Most of these are rainfed and seasonal. The important rivers in the Garo Hills region are Daring, Sanda, Bandra, Bhogai, Dareng, Simsang, Nitai and the Bhupai. In the central and eastern sections of the plateau, the important rivers are Khri, Digaru, Umiam, Kynshi (Jadukata), Mawpa, Umiam or Barapani, Umngot and Myntdu. In the southern Khasi Hills region, these rivers have created deep gorges and several beautiful waterfalls. > The central part of the plateau comprising the Khasi Hills has the highest elevations, followed by the eastern section comprising the Jaintia Hills region. The highest point in Meghalaya is Shillong Peak, > The great Indian hornbill is the largest bird in Meghalaya. > The hoolock gibbon is found in all districts of Meghalaya > The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve in the West Garo Hills and the Balphakram National Park in the South Garo Hills are considered to be the most biodiversity-rich sites in Meghalaya. > In addition, Meghalaya has three wildlife sanctuaries. These are the Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary, the Siju Sanctuary and the Bhagmara Sanctuary, which is also the home of the insect eating pitcher plant Nepenthes khasiana.

FRAMED FROM NCERT GEOGRAPHY

Q.241 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. COP 3 	: 	Kyoto protocol on climate change

2. COP 11 	: 	Paris treaty

3. COP1 	: 	Minimata convention on mercury

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 1 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 2 & 3

Ans. B

COP 11 : Montreal , It took place between 28 November and 9 December 2005, in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. It was the first Meeting of the Parties (CMP 1) to the Kyoto Protocol since their initial meeting in Kyoto in 1997. It was one of the largest intergovernmental conferences on climate change ever.
FRAMED FROM LIVE MINT

Q.240 With reference to the S-band spectrum, consider the following statements :

1. It is part of the microwave & Infrared band of the electromagnetic spectrum

2. It is standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz,

3. The S band is used by all communications satellites to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1 & 2

Ans. B
The S band is part of the microwave band of the electromagnetic spectrum. It is defined by an IEEE standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz, crossing the conventional boundary between UHF and SHF at 3.0 GHz. The S band is used by weather radar, surface ship radar, and some communications satellites, especially those used by NASA to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station. The 10 cm radar short-band ranges roughly from 1.55 to 5.2 GHz. In some countries, S band is used for Direct-to-Home satellite television (unlike similar services in most countries, which use Ku band). The frequency typically allocated for this service is 2.5 to 2.7 GHz (LOF 1.570 GHz).

FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT

Q.239 With reference to the Vote of No-confidence, consider the following statements :

1. It shows disapproval & results in the resignation of ministers

2. It is directed against the entire cabinet but not against an individual minister

3. No-confidence motions may not require reasons for the motion to be specified

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 2

Ans. C

No Confidence" may lead to compulsory resignation of the council of ministers or other position-holder(s), whereas "Censure" is meant to show disapproval and does not result in the resignation of ministers. The censure motion can be against an individual minister or a group of ministers, but the no-confidence motion is directed against the entire cabinet censure motions may need to state the reasons for the motion while no-confidence motions may not require reasons to be specified. In India, a Motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament of India). The motion is admitted for discussion when a minimum of 50 members of the house support the motion. With the anti-defection law, Vote of no-confidence has no relevance left in case the majority party has an absolute majority in the House. If the majority party (with an absolute majority in the House) issues whip to vote party members in favor of the Government, then it is impossible to remove the Government by no-confidence motion. Hence the no-confidence exercise of House merely becomes the no-confidence exercise of the Party.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.238 Which of the following determines the amount of phytoplanktons in the ocean water ?

1. Ocean Currents 

2. Temperature & Salinity 

3. Depth of ocean water

4. Length of day & time

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,2,3

B) 1 & 3

C) 2 & 4

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D

These are the autotrophic (self-feeding) components of the plankton community and a key part of oceans, seas and freshwater basin ecosystems. when present in high enough numbers, some varieties may be noticeable as colored patches on the water surface due to the presence of chlorophyll within their cells and accessory pigments (such as phycobiliproteins or xanthophylls) in some species. Phytoplankton are photosynthesizing microscopic organisms that inhabit the upper sunlit layer of almost all oceans and bodies of fresh water on Earth. They are agents for "primary production," the creation of organic compounds from carbon dioxide dissolved in the water, a process that sustains the aquatic food web In terms of numbers, the most important groups of phytoplankton include the diatoms, cyanobacteria and dinoflagellates, although many other groups of algae are represented. In oligotrophicoceanic regions such as the Sargasso Sea or the South Pacific Gyre, phytoplankton is dominated by the small sized cells, called picoplankton and nanoplankton (also referred to as picoflagellates and nanoflagellates), mostly composed of cyanobacteria(Prochlorococcus, Synechococcus) and picoeucaryotes such as Micromonas. Phytoplankton are crucially dependent on minerals. These are primarily macronutrients such as nitrate, phosphate or silicic acid, whose availability is governed by the balance between the so-called biological pump and upwelling of deep, nutrient-rich waters. However, across large regions of the World Ocean such as the Southern Ocean, phytoplankton are also limited by the lack of the micronutrient iron. Phytoplankton depend on Vitamin B for survival. Areas in the ocean have been identified as having a major lack of Vitamin B, and correspondingly, phytoplankton Phytoplankton absorb energy from the Sun and nutrients from the water to produce their own food. In the process of photosynthesis, phytoplankton release molecular oxygen (O 2) into the water. Phytoplankton is used as a foodstock for the production of rotifers,[49] which are in turn used to feed other organisms. Phytoplankton is also used to feed many varieties of aquacultured molluscs, including pearl oysters and giant clams.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.237 Which among the following components is/are not the component(s) of the Polymetallic nodules ?

1. Iron 

2. Mercury 

3. Molybdenum

4. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2 & 4

C) 1 & 4

D) Only 3 & 4

Ans. B

Polymetallic nodules (also known as manganese nodules) are potato-shaped, largely porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in deep sea. The Union Cabinet has approved the extension of contract between Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India and the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for exploration of Polymetallic Nodules for a further period of 5 years (2017-22). The earlier contract is expiring on 24th March 2017. Composition: Besides manganese and iron, they contain nickel, copper, cobalt, lead, molybdenum, cadmium, vanadium, titanium, of which nickel, cobalt and copper are considered to be of economic and strategic importance.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.236 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Seagrass ?

1. Seagrass beds are productive ecosystems & used as fertilizer for sandy soil

2. Excessive input of nutrients are toxic to seagrasses

3. It is used in furniture, and woven like rattan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Seagrass beds are productive ecosystems & historically it was collected as fertilizer for sandy soil Seagrasses are in global decline, with some 30,000 km2 (12,000 sq mi) lost during recent decades. The main cause is human disturbance, most notably eutrophication, mechanical destruction of habitat, and overfishing. Excessive input of nutrients (nitrogen, phosphorus) is directly toxic to seagrasses, but most importantly, it stimulates the growth of epiphytic and free-floating macro- and micro-algae. This weakens the sunlight, reducing the photosynthesis that nourishes the seagrass and the primary production results. Historically, seagrasses were collected as fertilizer for sandy soil. This was an important use in the Ria de Aveiro, Portugal, where the plants collected were known as moliço. In the early 20th century, in France and, to a lesser extent, the Channel Islands, dried seagrasses were used as a mattress (paillasse) filling - such mattresses were in high demand by French forces during World War I. It was also used for bandages and other purposes. Currently, seagrass is used in furniture, and woven like rattan.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.235 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bio banks ?

1. It is an organized collection of only human biological material for research purposes

2. Population-based biobanks need particular hospital affiliation to look for biomarkers for disease susceptibility

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D

It as "an organized collection of human biological material and associated information stored for one or more research purposes". Collections of plant, animal, microbe, and other nonhuman materials may also be described as biobanks but in some discussions the term is reserved for human specimens. Disease-oriented biobanks usually have a hospital affiliation through which they collect samples representing a variety of diseases, perhaps to look for biomarkers affiliated with disease.Population-based biobanks need no particular hospital affiliation because they take samples from large numbers of all kinds of people, perhaps to look for biomarkers for disease susceptibility in a general population.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.234 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Clonal Seed production ?

1. The genotype of the embryo & the resulting plant will be same as the seed parent

2. It is a type of reproduction in which seeds are formed without union of gamets 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.233 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the Manjra river ?

1. Teru

2. Gharni

3. Lendi

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Manjiira is a tributary of the river Godavari. It passes through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana. It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 metres (2,700 ft) and empties into the Godavari River.
It flows on the Balaghat plateau along with its tributaries: Terna, Tawarja and Gharni. The other three tributaries of Manjara are Manyad, Teru and Lendi which flow on the northern plains.


FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA

Q.232 With reference to the Indian National Movement, what was Dharsana satyagraha ?

A) It was the movement by the peasants against the land lords in Bengal 

B) It was the protest against prejudice and discrimination towards brahmins

C) It aimed at removing the British Empire from power by boycotting British products

D) It was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India 

Ans. D

Dharasana Satyagraha was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India in May, 1930. Following the conclusion of the Salt March to Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi chose a non-violent raid of the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat as the next protest against British rule. Hundreds of satyagrahis were beaten by soldiers under British command at Dharasana. The ensuing publicity attracted world attention to the Indian independence movement and brought into question the legitimacy of British rule in India.
FRAMED FROM MAPS PORTION

Q.231 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Kavaratti 	:	Tamil Nadu

2. Nilgiris	:	Western ghats

3. Karaikal	: 	Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 2

D) 1 & 2

Ans. C

Kavaratti 	:	Kerala
Karaikal 	: 	Tamil Nadu
Nilgiris 	: 	Western Ghats


FRAMED FROM CLASS 12TH BIOLOGY

Q.230 Under IUCN Manatee has been classified under which category ?

A) Endangered

B) Vulberable

C) Extinct

D) Critically endangered

Ans. A

They are large, fully aquatic, mostly herbivorous marine mammals sometimes known as sea cows All three species of manatee are listed by the World Conservation Union as vulnerable to extinction. It is illegal under federal and Florida law to injure or harm a manatee. They are classified as "endangered" by both the state and the federal governments. Manatees inhabit the shallow, marshy coastal areas and rivers of the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico (T. manatus, West Indian manatee), the Amazon basin (T. inunguis, Amazonian manatee), and West Africa (T. senegalensis, West African manatee). West Indian manatees prefer warmer temperatures and are known to congregate in shallow waters. They frequently migrate through brackish water estuaries to freshwater springs. They cannot survive below 15 °C (60 °F). Their natural source for warmth during winter is warm, spring-fed rivers.

FRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICTIONS

Q.229 Consider the following :

1. Ferrel cell		: 	Intertropical Convergence Zone

2. Hadley cell		:	Horse latitude

3. Polar cell			: 	Polar front

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 3

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 2

Ans. B

Hadley cell	: Intertropical Convergence Zone

Ferrel cell	: Horse latitude


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.228 Consider the following :

1. Nilgiri biosphere reserve 	:	Nilgiri tahr & Lion tailed macaque 

2. Nanda devi			:	Snow leopard & Himalayan Black bear 

3. Gulf of mannar 		:	Dugong

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 3

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Other biosphere reserves :

Nokrek 	: Red panda
Manas 	: Golden Langur, Red Panda
Simlipal	: Gaur, Royal Bengal tiger , Asian elephant
Dihang-Dibang : Mishmi Takin, Musk deer
Pachmarhi biosphere reserve : flying squirrel & Giant squirrel
Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve : Four-horned antelope, Indian wild dog, Sarus crane, White-rumped vulture, Philautus sanctisilvaticus(Sacred grove bush frog)
Great Rann of Kutch : Indian wild    ass
Cold Desert : Indian wild ass
Khangchendzonga : Snow leopard, red panda
Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve : Nilgiri tahr, elephants
Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve : Saltwater crocodile
Dibru-Saikhowa : Golden langur
Seshachalam Hills  : Slender Loris


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.227 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Sambhar lake ?

1. It is an elliptically shaped lake surrounded on all sides by the Himalayas

2.  It is not part of the Ganga river basin area 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B

The lake receives water from an endorheic basin with 5700 square km catchment area.
It is not part of the Ganga river basin area and is geographically a separate land locked river basin.
The lake is actually an extensive saline wetland, with water depths fluctuating from as few as 60 centimetres (24 in) during the dry season to about 3 meters (10 ft) after the monsoon season.
It occupies an area of 190 to 230 square kilometers, based on the season.
It is an elliptically shaped lake 35.5 km long with a breadth varying between 3 km and 11 km.
It is located in Nagaur and Jaipur districts and it also borders the Ajmer district.
The circumference of the lake is 96 km, surrounded on all sides by the Aravali hills.
The Sambhar lake basin is divided by a 5.1 km long dam made of sandstone.
It is India's largest saline lake and is the source of most of Rajasthan's salt production.
Sambhar has been designated as a Ramsar site (recognized wetland of international importance) because the wetland is a key wintering area for tens of thousands of flamingos and other birds that migrate from northern Asia.
The specialized algae and bacteria growing in the lake provide striking water colours and support the lake ecology that, in turn, sustains the migrating waterfowl. There is other wildlife in the nearby forests, where Nilgai move freely along with deer and foxes. The salt (NaCl) concentration in this lake water differs with season.
The salt concentration in the pans Kyars varies and accordingly the color ranges from green, orange, pink, purple pink, red due to the bloom of haloalkaliphilic microorganisms.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.226 Protein extract of which of the following is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds ?

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Algae

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 1 & 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D
  

Single-cell protein (SCP) refers to edible unicellular microorganisms. The biomass or protein extract from pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria may be used as an ingredient or a substitute for protein-rich foods, and is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds. Single-cell proteins develop when microbes ferment waste materials (including wood, straw, cannery, and food-processing wastes, residues from alcohol production, hydrocarbons, or human and animal excreta).[17] The problem with extracting single-cell proteins from the wastes is the dilution and cost.

FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY

Q.225 Which among the following is/are classified as Fungus ?

1. Molds

2. Yeast

3. Slime Molds

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 2

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. A

Fungus is any member of the group of eukaryotic organisms that includes microorganisms such as yeasts and molds, as well as the more familiar mushrooms. These organisms are classified as a kingdom, Fungi, which is separate from the other eukaryotic life kingdoms of plants and animals.
A characteristic that places fungi in a different kingdom from plants, bacteria, and some protists is chitin in their cell walls. Similar to animals, fungi are heterotrophs; they acquire their food by absorbing dissolved molecules, typically by secreting digestive enzymes into their environment. Fungi do not photosynthesise.
Fungi are the principal decomposers in ecological systems.
Like plants, fungi often grow in soil and, in the case of mushrooms, form conspicuous fruit bodies, which sometimes resemble plants such as mosses. The fungi are now considered a separate kingdom, distinct from both plants and animals,
With animals: Fungi lack chloroplasts and are heterotrophic organisms and so require preformed organic compounds as energy sources.
With plants: Fungi have a cell wall and vacuoles.They reproduce by both sexual and asexual means, and like basal plant groups (such as ferns and mosses) produce spores. Similar to mosses and algae, fungi typically have haploid nuclei.
similar-looking organisms, such as filamentous green algae, grow by repeated cell division within a chain of cells.There are also single-celled fungi (yeasts) that do not form hyphae, and some fungi have both hyphal and yeast forms
The fungal cell wall is composed of glucans and chitin; while glucans are also found in plants and chitin in the exoskeleton of arthropods.
Most fungi lack an efficient system for the long-distance transport of water and nutrients, such as the xylem and phloem in many plants. To overcome this limitation, some fungi, such as Armillaria, form rhizomorphs,which resemble and perform functions similar to the roots of plants.
Most food-spoilage molds, most plant pathogenic fungi, and the beer, wine, and bread yeasts.
water molds (oomycetes) and hyphochytrids (both Stramenopiles) were formerly classified in the kingdom Fungi, in groups like Mastigomycotina, Gymnomycota and Phycomycetes. The slime molds were studied also as protozoans, leading to a ambiregnal, duplicated taxonomy.
Lichens occur in every ecosystem on all continents, play a key role in soil formation and the initiation of biological succession,[154] and are prominent in some extreme environments, including polar, alpine, and semiarid desert regions.They are able to grow on inhospitable surfaces, including bare soil, rocks, tree bark, wood, shells, barnacles and leaves
Certain types of cheeses require inoculation of milk curds with fungal species that impart a unique flavor and texture to the cheese. Examples include the blue color in cheeses such as Stilton or Roquefort, which are made by inoculation with Penicillium roqueforti. Molds used in cheese production are non-toxic and are thus safe for human consumption;
Many mushroom species are poisonous to humans, with toxicities ranging from slight digestive problems or allergic reactions as well as hallucinations to severe organ failures and death.
Fungi are used extensively to produce industrial chemicals like citric, gluconic, lactic, and malic acids.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.224 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Aligarh movement ?

1. The impact of Aligarh Movement was confined to the Northern India only

2. The Aligarh Movement introduced a new trend in Arabic literature.

3. It aimed to establish a modern system of education for the Muslim population of British India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 2 & 3

B) 1 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) Only 3

Ans. D

The Aligarh Movement is the movement to establish a modern system of education for the Muslim population of British India, during the later decades of the 19th century.The movement′s name derives from the fact that its core and origins lay in the city of Aligarh in Northern India and, in particular, with the foundation of: the Muhammadan Anglo Oriental Collegiate School.The founder of the original college, and the other educational institutions that developed from it, was Sir Syed Ahmad Khan. He became the leading light of the wider Aligarh Movement.
It influenced a number of other contemporary movements to a great extent that it caused the emergence of other socio-religious movements during the 19th century. The impact of Aligarh Movement was not confined to the Northern India only, but its expansion could be seen on the other regions of the Indian sub-continent during the 20th century The movement was political in nature from the very beginning.The Deoband school was opposed to the movement as Aligarh Movement was pro British.
The Aligarh Movement introduced a new trend in Urdu literature. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan and his association left the old style of writing in the Urdu language, which was rhetorical and academic, and started a simple style which helped Muslims to understand the main purpose of the movement. Sir Syed Ahmed was the central figure behind this awakening..

FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY

Q.223 Consider the following :

1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 	:	Gopal Ganesh Agarkar

2. Deccan Education Society 	:	Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3. Prarthana Samaj 		:	Atmaran Pandurang 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 3

Ans. D

Prarthana Samaj, or "Prayer Society" in Sanskrit, was a movement for religious and social reform in Bombay based on earlier reform movements. Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang with the help of Keshav Chandra Sen in 1867, with an aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined. The main reformers were the intellectuals who advocated reforms of the social system of the Hindus.
The precursor of the Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai was the Paramahamsa Sabha, a secret society for the furtherance of liberal ideas by Ram Balkrishna Jaykar and others in Mumbai. It was secret in order to avoid the wrath of the powerful and orthodox elements of society
the primary focus of the Prarthana Samaj was on social and cultural reform.
Deccan Education Society :
In 1880 Vishnushastri Chiplunkar and Bal Gangadhar Tilak established the New English School, one of the first native-run schools offering Western education in Pune.[1] In 1884 they created the Deccan Education Society[2][3] with Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Mahadev Ballal Namjoshi, V. S. Apte, V. B. Kelkar, M. S. Gole and N. K. Dharap. Soon afterwards,they established Fergusson College with Tilak and Agharkar as early lecturers.
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha :
It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants' legal rights. The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself. The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade, et al.
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY

Q.222 Which among the following plants can be regarded as a haven for people with pollen allergies ?

1. Summer grass

2. Oak

3. Arizona

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 2

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) Only 3

Ans. D

Pollen: Pollen itself is not the male gamete.Each pollen grain contains vegetative (non-reproductive) cells (only a single cell in most flowering plants but several in other seed plants) and a generative (reproductive) cell. In flowering plants the vegetative tube cell produces the pollen tube, and the generative cell divides to form the two sperm cell Non-flowering seed plants (e.g. pine trees) are characteristically anemophilous. Anemophilous flowering plants generally have inconspicuous flowers. Entomophilous (literally insect-loving) plants produce pollen that is relatively heavy, sticky and protein-rich, for dispersal by insect pollinators attracted to their flowers. Many insects and some mitesare specialized to feed on pollen, and are called palynivores. Anemophilous spring blooming plants such as oak, birch, hickory, pecan, and early summer grasses may also induce pollen allergies. Most cultivated plants with showy flowers are entomophilous and do not cause pollen allergies. Arizona was once regarded as a haven for people with pollen allergies, although several ragweed species grow in the desert. However, as suburbs grew and people began establishing irrigated lawns and gardens, more irritating species of ragweed gained a foothold and Arizona lost its claim of freedom from hay fever.

FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY

Q.221 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Micropropagation ?

1. It is the only viable method of regenerating genetically modified cells after protoplast fusion.

2. All the  progeny plants are vulnerable to the same infections.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C

Micropropagation has a number of advantages over traditional plant propagation techniques:
• The main advantage of micropropagation is the production of many plants that are clones of each other.
• Micropropagation can be used to produce disease-free plants.
• It can have an extraordinarily high fecundity rate, producing thousands of propagules while conventional techniques might only produce a fraction of this number.
• It is the only viable method of regenerating genetically modified cells or cells after protoplast fusion.
• It is useful in multiplying plants which produce seeds in uneconomical amounts, or when plants are sterile and do not produce viable seeds or when seed cannot be stored (see recalcitrant seeds).
• Micropropagation often produces more robust plants, leading to accelerated growth compared to similar plants produced by conventional methods - like seeds or cuttings.
• Some plants with very small seeds, including most orchids, are most reliably grown from seed in sterile culture.
• A greater number of plants can be produced per square meter and the propagules can be stored longer and in a smaller area.
Micropropagation is not always the perfect means of multiplying plants. Conditions that limits its use include:
• It is very expensive, and can have a labour cost of more than 70%.
• A monoculture is produced after micropropagation, leading to a lack of overall disease resilience, as all progeny plants may be vulnerable to the same infections.
• An infected plant sample can produce infected progeny. This is uncommon as the stock plants are carefully screened and vetted to prevent culturing plants infected with virus or fungus.
• Not all plants can be successfully tissue cultured, often because the proper medium for growth is not known or the plants produce secondary metabolic chemicals that stunt or kill the explant.
• Sometimes plants or cultivars do not come true to type after being tissue cultured. This is often dependent on the type of explant material utilized during the initiation phase or the result of the age of the cell or propagule line.
Some plants are very difficult to disinfect of fungal organism.

FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE

Q.220 Which among the following is/are the features that characterizes the Pioneer species ?

1. Most of them are hardy species with non-photosynthetic activity

2. The plants that are often pioneer species tend to be insect-pollinated

3. Orchids, lichens & Algae are the examples of the pioneer species

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) Only 3

Ans. D

Examples of the plants and organism that colonize such areas are pioneer species: • Barren sand - lyme grass (Leymus arenarius), sea couch grass (Agropyron pungens), Marram grass (Ammophila breviligulata) • Salt water - green algae, marine eel grass (Zostera spp.), pickleweed (Salicornia virginica), and cordgrass (hybrid Spartina × townsendii) and (Spartina anglica). • Clear water - algae, mosses, freshwater eel grass (Vallisneria americana). • Solidified lava flows - in Hawaii: swordfern (Polystichum munitum), ‘ōhi‘a lehua (Metrosideros polymorpha), ‘ohelo (Vaccinium reticulatum) and ‘āma‘u (Sadleria cyatheoides);[3] on Surtsey: lichen (Stereocaulon vesuvianum and Placopsis gelida) and moss (Racomitriumericoides);[4] green algae • Disturbed areas such as construction sites, road cuttings and verges, cultivated lands - Buddleia davidii, Nettles[clarification needed], Tagetes minuta, Bidens pilosa, Argemone mexicana • Bare clay - Orchids • Mountains - Lichens Pioneer species are hardy species which are the first to colonize previously disrupted or damaged ecosystems, beginning a chain of ecological succession that ultimately leads to a more biodiverse steady-state ecosystem Since some uncolonized land may have thin, poor quality soils with few nutrients, pioneer species are often hardy plants with adaptations such as long roots, root nodes containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and leaves that employ transpiration. They are often photosynthetic plants, as no other source of energy (such as other species) except light energy is often available in the early stages of succession, thus making it less likely for a pioneer species to be non-photosynthetic. The plants that are often pioneer species also tend to be wind-pollinated rather than insect-pollinated, Pioneering fauna will colonize an area only after flora and fungi have inhabited the area. Soil fauna, ranging from microscopic protists to larger invertebrates, have a role in soil formation and nutrient cycling. Bacteria and fungi are the most important groups in the breakdown of organic detritus left by primary producing plants such as skeletal soil, moss and algae. Though vertebrates in general would not be considered pioneer species, there are exceptions Pioneer species can also be found in secondary succession, such as an established ecosystem being reduced by an event such as: a forest fire, deforestation, or clearing; quickly colonizing open spaces which previously supported vegetation. Common examples of the plants in such areas include • Raspberry - Rubus spp. • Heaths - Ericaceae spp. • Graminoids, forbs, and wildflowers - native, introduced, and invasive species: such as fire dependent seed, cone, and resprouter chaparral genera.
FRAMED FROM Wikipedia

Q.219 Which among the following plants is/are classified under the category of aquatic plants ?

1. Duckweed

2. Water Hyacinth

3. Lotus

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

One of the largest aquatic plants in the world is the Amazon water lily; one of the smallest is the minute duckweed. Many small aquatic animals use plants like duckweed for a home, or for protection from predators, but areas with more vegetation are likely to have more predators. Some other familiar examples of aquatic plants might include floating heart, water lily, lotus, and water hyacinth. Some aquatic plants are used by humans as a food source. Examples include wild rice (Zizania), water caltrop (Trapa natans), Chinese water chestnut (Eleocharis dulcis), Indian lotus (Nelumbo nucifera), water spinach (Ipomoea aquatica), and watercress (Rorippa nasturtium-aquaticum).

FRAMED FROM Live Mint

Q.218 Which among the following equipment(s) comes under the classification of energy efficient schemes ?

1. LED bulbs

2. Fans

3.LED tube lights

4. Street lights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,2,3

B) Only 1 & 3

C) 1,3,4

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D

Solar water pump sets : At present, solar water pumping system market in India is subsidy driven. Non-subsidized pumps accounts for marginal share in the market. High capital cost is the major hurdle in the growth of solar water pumping system market. Regardless of subsidies provided by the government, solar pumps are still unaffordable for small farmers due to their high upfront cost in comparison to diesel and electric pumps. With this background, EESL intends to develop a programme to provide a reliable source of supply to agricultural pump sets which are currently being operated by diesel generators or through grid supply by way of solar mini grids. By developing such renewable energy based grids, farmers will be able to receive considerable revenue on monthly basis by selling the excess power to the grid for a period of 25 years. The benefits of the programme to the farmers includes social emancipation as well as contribution to the society by means of water conservation

FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.217 With reference to the news there was a term “TERM CELLS”, What is this ?

A) It is an alternative of Stem cells that can differentiate into specialized cells

B) It is the vigilance and monitoring wing of the Indian Department of Telecommunications

C) These are the tiny cells in the form of pins that are used in laptops, torches, etc.

D) It has been set up by the government to combat illegal trafficking 

Ans. B

Telecom Enforcement Resource and Monitoring (TERM), formerly known as Vigilance Telecom Monitoring (VTM), is the vigilance and monitoring wing of the Indian Department of Telecommunications (DoT) TERM is made up of 34 Cells in India's 22 telecom circles and 10 large telecom districts,[2] each headed by a Senior Administrative Grade (SAG) level officer, termed as Deputy Director General (DDG).The main functions of TERM Cells are vigilance, monitoring and security of the network.Apart from this, TERM Cells also operate the Central Monitoring System (CMS), a clandestine mass electronic surveillance program, and carry out other functions. The TERM Cells function as the subordinate offices of the DoT in the field. These Cells represent the Telegraph Authority and the Licensor.

Q.216 Which of the following can be used to extract heavy metals from water ?

1. Aluminum oxide

2. Cellulose

3. Silica

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM ICSE CLASS 7TH GEOGRAPHY

Q.215 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Sunabeda tiger reserve	:	West Bengal

2. Guru Ghasidas 		:	Chhattisgarh

3. Ratapani Tiger Reserve 	:	Rajasthan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) Only 2

Ans. D

Ratapani Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh), 

Sunabeda Tiger Reserve (Odisha), and 

Guru Ghasidas (Chhattisgarh).

Kudremukh National Park (Karnataka)

Suhelwa (Uttar Pradesh), 

Mhadei Sanctuary (Goa), 

Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary / Megamalai Wildlife Sanctuary / Varushanadu Valley (Tamil Nadu),  

Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary (Arunachal Pradesh) and

Cauvery-MM Hills (Karnataka)

There are 50 tiger reserves in India which are governed by Project Tiger which is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority(NTCA). 
India is home to 70 percent of tigers in the world. In 2006, there were 1,411 tigers which increased to 1,706 in 2011 and 2,226 in 2014.
The total number of wild tigers have gone upto 3891 in 2016 according to World Wildlife Fund and Global Tiger Forum.


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA 

Q.214 Which among the following is/are the core schemes ?

1. MNREGA

2. National Social Assistance Plan

3. National Programme for persons with disabilities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Core schemes: For these schemes, the fund-sharing pattern between the Centre and states would be 60:40 for general category states. For the eight Northeastern states & three Himalayan states , ratio is 90:10. These are fully funded by the centre

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA 

Q.213 Which among the following languages comes under the Dravidian language family ?

1. Tamil

2. Assamese

3. Odia

4. Malayalam

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 1 & 4

D) Only 2

Ans. C

The Dravidian languages with the most speakers are Telugu, Tamil, Kannada and Malayalam The most widely spoken languages of Indo-Aryan group are Hindi (or more correctly, Hindustani, which includes Hindi and Urdu), Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, Punjabi, Rajasthani, Assamese (Asamiya), and Odia. Austroasiatic languages of mainland India are the Khasi and Munda languages, including Santhali. With the exceptions of Khasi and Santhali, all Austroasiatic languages on Indian territory are endangered Sino-Tibetan languages spoken in India include Karbi, Meitei, Lepcha, as well as many varieties of several related Tibetic, West Himalayish, Tani, Brahmaputran, Angami–Pochuri, Tangkhul, Zeme, Kukish language groups, amongst many others. The Ongan family of the southern Andaman Islands, comprising two extant languages, Önge and Jarawa, and one extinct tongue, Jangil. Until the Twenty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India in 1967, the country recognised 14 official regional languages. The Eighth Schedule and the Seventy-First Amendment provided for the inclusion of Sindhi, Konkani, Meitei and Nepali, thereby increasing the number of official regional languages of India to 18. Writing systems: Most languages in India are written in Brahmi-derived scripts, such as Devanagari, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Odia, Eastern Nagari - Assamese/Bengali, etc., though Urdu is written in a script derived from Arabic, and a few minor languages such as Santali use independent scripts
FRAMED FROM NCERT 

Q.212 Which among the following is/are the list of prohibited substances by the World Anti-Doping Agency ?

1. Furosemide

2. Caffeine

3. Epinephrine

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 1,2,3

D) 2 & 3

Ans. A

Caffeine, although a stimulant has not been banned by the International Olympic Committee or the World Anti Doping Agency 
since 2004.


FRAMED FROM NCERT 

Q.211  Which among the following is/are the wetlands ?

1. Swamps

2. Mangroves

3. Ferns

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 1,2,3

D) 2 & 3

Ans. C

Wetlands occur naturally on every continent except Antarctica,the largest including the Amazon River basin, the West Siberian Plain,and the Pantanal in South America. The water found in wetlands can be freshwater, brackish, or saltwater. The main wetland types include swamps, marshes, bogs, and ferns; and sub-types include mangrove, carr, pocosin, and varzea. The UN Millennium Ecosystem Assessment determined that environmental degradation is more prominent within wetland systems than any other ecosystem on Earth Wetlands have also been described as ecotones, providing a transition between dry land and water bodies. The most important factor producing wetlands is flooding. The duration of flooding determines whether the resulting wetland has aquatic, marsh or swamp vegetation. Other important factors include fertility, natural disturbance, competition, herbivory, burial and salinity.When peat accumulates, bogs and ferns arise.

FRAMED FROM The Hindu 

Q.210 Which among the following is correct with respect to the Mogadishu declaration ?

A) It is the declaration for the empowerment of women that was adopted recently in 2015 in Peru

B) It is the declaration adopted in 2016 that calls for the electoral process in Somalia to establish new bicameral federal parliament 

C) It is the declaration adopted in 2015 for the reduction of greenhouse gases by the developed countries only

D) It is the declaration adopted in 2015 that calls for the electoral process in Somalia to establish new bicameral federal parliament

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM NCERT BIO

Q.209 CAM Photosynthesis is found in which of the following species ?

1. Vallisneria

2. Crassula aquatica

3. Sagittaria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) 1 & 3

Ans. C

CAM photosynthesis is also found in aquatic species in at least 4 genera, including: Isoetes, Crassula, Littorella, Sagittaria, and possibly Vallisneria,being found in a variety of species e.g. Isoetes howellii, Crassula aquatica. These plants follow the same nocturnal acid accumulation and daytime deacidification as terrestrial CAM species.However, the reason for CAM in aquatic plants is not due to a lack of available water, but a limited supply of CO2.CO2 is limited due to slow diffusion in water, 10000x slower than in air. The problem is especially acute under acid pH, where the only inorganic carbon species present is CO2, with no available bicarbonate or carbonate supply. Aquatic CAM plants capture carbon at night when it is abundant due to a lack of competition from other photosynthetic organisms. This also results in lowered photorespiration due to less photosynthetically generated oxygen. Aquatic CAM is most marked in the summer months when there is increased competition for CO2, compared to the winter months. However, in the winter months CAM still has a significant role. The majority of plants possessing CAM are either epiphytes (e.g., orchids, bromeliads) or succulent xerophytes (e.g., cacti, cactoid Euphorbias), but CAM is also foundin hemiepiphytes (e.g., Clusia); lithophytes (e.g., Sedum, Sempervivum); terrestrial bromeliads; wetland plants (e.g., Isoetes, Crassula (Tillaea), Lobelia; and in one halophyte, Mesembryanthemum crystallinum; one non-succulent terrestrial plant, (Dodonaea viscosa) and one mangrove associate (Sesuvium portulacastrum). Plants which are able to switch between different methods of carbon fixation include Portulacaria afra, better known as Dwarf Jade Plant, which normally uses C3 fixation but can use CAM if it is drought-stressed, and Portulaca oleracea, better known as Purslane, which normally uses C4 fixation but is also able to switch to CAM when drought-stressed. It is found in quillworts (relatives of club mosses), in ferns, and in Gnetopsida, but the great majority of plants using CAM are angiosperms (flowering plants). The C4 pathway bears resemblance to CAM; both act to concentrate CO2 around RuBisCO, thereby increasing its efficiency. CAM concentrates it temporally, providing CO2 during the day, and not at night, when respiration is the dominant reaction. C4 plants, in contrast, concentrate CO2 spatially, with a RuBisCO reaction centre in a "bundle sheath cell" being inundated with CO2. Due to the inactivity required by the CAM mechanism, C4 carbon fixation has a greater efficiency in terms of PGA synthesis. The most important benefit of CAM to the plant is the ability to leave most leaf stomata closed during the day.Plants employing CAM are most common in arid environments, where water comes at a premium. Being able to keep stomata closed during the hottest and driest part of the day reduces the loss of water through evapotranspiration, allowing such plants to grow in environments that would otherwise be far too dry. Plants using only C3 carbon fixation, for example, lose 97% of the water they uptake through the roots to transpiration - a high cost avoided by plants able to employ CAM.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.208 Pink Bollworm & cry toxins are associated with which of the following ?

A) Transgenic seeds

B) Bt cotton

C) Cisgenic organisms

D) Bt Brinjal

Ans. B

Bt cotton is ineffective against many cotton pests such as plant bugs, stink bugs, and aphids; depending on circumstances it may be desirable to use insecticides in prevention. The gene coding for Bt toxin has been inserted into cotton as a transgene, causing it to produce this natural insecticide in its tissues. In many regions, the main pests in commercial cotton are lepidopteran larvae, which are killed by the Bt protein in the genetically modified cotton they eat. This eliminates the need to use large amounts of broad-spectrum insecticides to kill lepidopteran pests (some of which have developed pyrethroidresistance). This spares natural insect predators in the farm ecology and further contributes to noninsecticide pest management. The important advantages of Bt cotton are briefly : • Increases yield of cotton due to effective control of three types of bollworms, viz. American, Spotted and Pink bollworms. • Insects belonged to Lepidoptera (Bollworms) are sensitive to crystalline endotoxic protein produced by Bt gene which in turn protects cotton from bollworms. • Reduction in insecticide use in the cultivation of Bt cotton in which bollworms are major pests. • Potential reduction in the cost of cultivation (depending on seed cost versus insecticide costs). • Reduction in environmental pollution by the use of insecticides. • Bt cotton exhibit genetic resistance or inbuilt resistance which is a permanent type of resistance and not affected by environmental factors. Thus protects crop from bollworms. • Bt cotton is ecofriendly and does not have adverse effect on parasites, predators, beneficial insecticides and organisms present in soil. • It promotes multiplication of parasites and predators which help in controlling the bollworms by feeding on larvae and eggs of bollworm. • No health hazards due to rare use of insecticides (particularly who is engaged in spraying of insecticides).

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.207 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the slurry of biogas plant ?

1. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry increases the yield of major crops

2. It has shown better yields in vegetable crops & in fodder crops.

3.It has been proved to completely remove the weed growth & their roots

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 1 & 2

Ans. B

The effectiveness of biogas plant slurry in combination with chemical fertilizers was studied for the production of various crops. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry decreased the yields of major crops, i.e. wheat, bajra, jawar and mustard. Application of slurry to replace half the nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in vegetable crops while replacement of the total nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in fodder crops. Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease.Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease.
FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography

Q.206 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the river Barak ?

1. Maku

2. Shyok

3. Tuivai

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 1 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 1,2,3

Ans. B

The Barak River, the largest of Manipur, originates in the Manipur Hills and is joined by tributaries, such as the Irang, Maku, and Tuivai.


FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography

Q.205 Which among the following are the fish eating birds ?

1. White breasted cormorants

2. Grey pelicans

3. Flamingo

4. White head gannets or piqueros

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,2,4

B) 1 & 2

C) Only 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. A


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.204 With reference to the news there is a term Impact index, what is this ?

A) It is an instrument used by RBI to control Inflation

B) It is an alternative statistical system in cricket which measures the contribution of each player in the context of the impact that he has on the match

C) It is an index used to determine the thrush exerted by the rocket while its launch

D) It is an instrument used by Finance Minister for credit control

Ans. B


FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA

Q.203 Under the Government of India Act 1919, which among the following subject(s) is/are not kept under the reserved list ?

1. Local self government

2. Education

3. Communications

4. Religious endowments

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 3

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,4

Ans. D

Subjects such as Land revenue administration, famine relief, irrigation, administration of justice, law and order, newspapers, borrowing, forests etc. were kept in reserved list; the subjects such as education, public health & sanitation, public works, agriculture, fisheries, religious endowments, local self governments, medical services etc. were kept in transferred list.
The 'reserved list' included Defence (the military), Foreign Affairs, and Communications.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU 

Q.202 With reference to the proposed GST Council, consider the following statements: 

1. All the grocery items are excluded under the GST

2. Finance minister or State finance ministers will be acted as the chairman of the GST council

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D

Ist statements is incorrect as Grocery items includes Pulses, Food items, Fruits,Milk etc. So not all the items are excluded under the GST

Finance minister will be acted as the chairman of the GST council

State finance ministers or taxation minister or any minister nominated by state government


FRAMED FROM MHRD.GOV.IN

Q.201 With reference to the Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme , consider the following statements :

1. Only states willing to accept educational reforms will be eligible for world bank aid

2. Selection of institutions will be decided by Ministry of human resource & development 

3. The total outlay for this plan would be 36,000 crore

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 3

Ans. B

Selection of institutions will be decided in consultation with stakeholders & world bank

The total outlay for this plan would be 36,00 crore

Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP) was conceived and designed as a long term Project to be implemented in 10 to 12 years in 3 Phases in order to support excellence and transformation in Technical Education in the country.

Each Phase of the Project was to be implemented on the basis of success achieved and lessons learned in the earlier Phase.
•	The Phase – I of the Project started in 2003 which lasted till 2009.
•	The second phase was from 2010 which lasted till October 2016.
•	The third phase would be implemented as a ‘Central Sector Scheme’.


Q.200 Indo-China joint mechanism on the Brahmaputra river was aimed at :

1. Sharing river water

2. Sharing river water data 

3. Sharing information on transboundary projects

4. Addressing concerns on dams in upper Brahmaputra

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 2

D) 1 & 2

Ans. B


FRAMED FROM NIOS HISTORY

Q.199 With reference to the tribal groups, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Labadis	-	Cattle herders

2. Gaddis	-	Shepherds

3. Bakarwals   -	Goats

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 1 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM NIOS HISTORY

Q.198 With reference to the ancient period, What was Pahul ?

A) It was the sanctified water offered by a master to the pupil

B) It was a device or equipment that can pump air

C) It was the turbine used for lifting water for an irrigation

D) It was token of being accepted as a trainee on shishya’s march to godliness

Ans. A

Pahul was the sanctified water offered by a master to the pupil 

shishya : as a token of his being accepted as a trainee on his march to godliness.

Bellows : It was a device or equipment that can pump air


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.197 Which among the following is/are not the characteristic(s) of the Gothic style of architecture ?

1. Gopuram

2. Flying buttress

3. Mandapa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 1

Ans. A

Gothic architecture is a style of architecture that flourished in Europe during the high and late medieval period. It evolved from Romanesque architecture and was succeeded by Renaissance architecture. Originating in 12th-century France and lasting into the 16th century, Gothic architecture was known during the period as Opus Francigenum ("French work") with the term Gothic first appearing during the later part of the Renaissance. Its characteristics include the pointed arch, the ribbed vault (which evolved from the joint vaulting of romanesque architecture) and the flying buttress. Gothic architecture is most familiar as the architecture of many of the great cathedrals, abbeys and churches of Europe. It is also the architecture of many castles, palaces, town halls, guild halls, universities and to a less prominent extent, private dwellings, such as dorms and rooms. It is in the great churches and cathedrals and in a number of civic buildings that the Gothic style was expressed most powerfully, its characteristics lending themselves to appeals to the emotions, whether springing from faith or from civic pride. A great number of ecclesiastical buildings remain from this period, of which even the smallest are often structures of architectural distinction while many of the larger churches are considered priceless works of art and are listed with UNESCO as World Heritage Sites. For this reason a study of Gothic architecture is largely a study of cathedrals and churches. A series of Gothic revivals began in mid-18th-century England, spread through 19th-century Europe and continued, largely for ecclesiastical and university structures, into the 20th century.


FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY

Q.196 With respect to Buddhism, What are Mandalas ?

A) These are mystical maps for the visualization process with cosmic symbolism

B) These contain rules for the Buddhist monasteries

C) These are the soteriological goals of the Buddhist path for monastic life

D) These are the means to escape from the cycle of rebirth & attain self realization

Ans. A

-- In Tibetan Buddhism tradition, mandala are mystical maps for the visualization process with cosmic symbolism.


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.195 Who among the following  are the members of the Washington Accord ?

1. India

2. China

3. Malaysia

4. South Africa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4

B) Only 1 & 2

C) Only 3

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D

* The Washington Accord is an international accreditation agreement for professional engineering academic degrees, between the bodies responsible for accreditation in its signatory countries. *The Washington Accord covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. *Engineering technology and postgraduate programs are not covered by the accord, although some engineering technology programs are covered under the Sydney Accord and the Dublin Accord. *Only qualifications awarded after the signatory country or region became part of the Washington Accord are recognized. *The accord is not directly responsible for the licensing of Professional Engineers and the registration of Chartered Engineers, but it does cover the academic requirements that are part of the licensing processes in signatory countries. *India became the permanent member of the Washington Accord *It is an esteemed international treaty on engineering studies and mobility of engineers across signatory countries including the US, the UK and Australia signatories are: Australia, Canada, Chinese Taipei, Hong Kong China, India, Ireland, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Russia, Singapore, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States. *The treaty covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. The accord doesn’t take into account engineering technology and postgraduate programs.

Q.194 What is meant by Deficit Financing ?

A) Capital expenditure on items of public construction, public borrowing & public enterprises 

B) Difference in borrowing & external & internal resources

C) Government’s expenditure on excess of revenue which causes a shortage in the budget therby making the government to finance its plans by borrowing 

D) Difference of the total expenditure & income from all the sources

Ans. C

*Deficit spending is the amount by which spending exceeds revenue over a particular period of time, also called simply deficit, or budget deficit; the opposite of budget surplus. *When the outlay of a government (i.e., the total of its purchases of goods and services, transfers in grants to individuals and corporations, and its net interest payments) exceeds its tax revenues, the government budget is said to be in deficit; government spending in excess of tax receipts is known as deficit spending. *Governments usually issue bonds to match their deficits. *They can be bought by its Central Bank through open market operations. Otherwise the debt issuance can increase the level of (i) public debt, (ii) private sector net worth, (iii) debt service (interest payments), and (iv) interest rates. *Deficit spending may, however, be consistent with public debt remaining stable as a proportion of GDP, depending on the level of GDP growth. *The opposite of a budget deficit is a budget surplus; in this case, tax revenues exceed government purchases and transfer payments. *For the public sector to be in deficit implies that the private sector (domestic and foreign) is in surplus. *An increase in public indebtedness must necessarily therefore correspond to an equal decrease in private sector net indebtedness. In other words, deficit spending permits the private sector to accumulate net worth. *Following John Maynard Keynes, many economists recommend deficit spending to moderate or end a recession, especially a severe one. *When the economy has high unemployment, an increase in government purchases creates a market for business output, creating income and encouraging increases in consumer spending, which creates further increases in the demand for business output. (This is the multiplier effect.) This raises the real gross domestic product (GDP) and the employment of labour, and if all else is constant, lowers the unemployment rate. (The connection between demand for GDP and unemployment is called Okun's law.) *The increased size of the market, due to government deficits, can further stimulate the economy by raising business profitability and spurring optimism, which encourages private fixed investment in factories, machines, and the like to rise. This accelerator effect stimulates demand further and encourages rising employment. *Similarly, running a government surplus or reducing its deficit reduces consumer and business spending and raises unemployment. This can lower the inflation rate. Any use of the government deficit to steer the macro-economy is called fiscal policy.


FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY 

Q.193 With reference to the ancient period  which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Vetti			-	Tax

2. Kadamai			-	Land revenue

3. Nadu				-	Group of villages

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 1 & 3

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY 

Q.192 With reference to the Cabinet mission, consider the following statements ;

1. Cabinet Mission announced its constitutional scheme for the formation of an Interim Government at the Centre

2. Muslim League decided to join the Interim Government

3. Muslim League didn’t accept Cabinet Mission’s constitutional scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 1 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 1 & 2

Ans. D

Muslim League accepts Cabinet Mission’s constitutional scheme


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.191 ketogenic diets are considered as the lifestyle choice & for weight loss. With reference to the Ketogenic diet, 

consider the following statements :

1. These are the high fat & low carbohydrate diet to provide neuroprotective benefits

2.These are considered as the risk free diet

3. Paediatricians prefer this diet in treatment of liver & Kidney disorders

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 1 & 2

C) Only 1

D) 1 & 3

Ans. C

The ketogenic diet is a high-fat, adequate-protein, low-carbohydrate diet that in medicine is used primarily to treat difficult-to-control (refractory) epilepsy in children. The diet forces the body to burn fats rather than carbohydrates. Normally, the carbohydrates contained in food are converted into glucose, which is then transported around the body and is particularly important in fueling brain-function. However, if there is very little carbohydrate in the diet, the liver converts fat into fatty acids and ketone bodies. The ketone bodies pass into the brain and replace glucose as an energy source. An elevated level of ketone bodies in the blood, a state known as ketosis, leads to a reduction in the frequency of epileptic seizures. Almost half of children, and young people, with epilepsy who have tried some form of this diet saw the number of seizures drop by at least half, and the effect persists even after discontinuing the diet. There is some evidence that adults with epilepsy may benefit from the diet, and that a less strict regimen, such as a modified Atkins diet, is similarly effective. The most common adverse effect is constipation, affecting about 30% of patients—this was due to fluid restriction, which was once a feature of the diet, but this led to increased risk of kidney stones, and is no longer considered beneficial

Q.190 Which of the following is/are included in Kyoto Protocol? 

1. Brominated flame retardants 

2. Methyl alcohol 

3. Hydrofluorocarbons 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

A) 1 and 2 

B) 2 and 3 

C) 3 only 

D) 1 only

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.189 With reference to the ancient India, which one among the following was made earliest?

A) Lingraj temple

B) Ajanta cave temple

C) Elephanta cave temple

D) Pattadakal temple

Ans.C

Lingraj temple ,Bhubaneshwar :-11th century

Ajanta cave temple : 19th century

Elephanta cave temple: 5TH century BC

Pattadakal temple : 7th – 8th century

Khajuraho,:- 95- 1050 AD


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.188 With reference to the news, what is INSV MADHEI ?

A) Rocket launcher

B) A Coast Guard

C) Sail training boat

D) Shoulder launched surface to air missile

Ans. C

INSV Mhadei is a sail training boat of the Indian Navy. The boat has two mainsails, two Genoa's, a stay-sail, one try-sail and two gennaker's. She is also fitted with satellite communications and electronic navigation systems - A second boat in this class, INS Tarini, was ordered in 2016 and is expected to be inducted into active service by March 2017 . The boat is being built by M/s Aquariues ship yard Pvt Ltd

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.187 With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?

A) Ellora caves 

B) Hindu caves 

C) Buddhist caves

D) Jain caves

Ans. A

ELLORA CAVES : 350-700 AD

Hindu caves : 600- 875 AD

Buddhist caves : 550- 750 AD

Jain caves :800- 1000 AD


Q.186 In ancient India Mehrgarh was :

A) Kingdom in the Deccan area

B) Graveyard of the Delhi sultanate

C) Fort in Rajasthan

D) Neolithic site in the Bolan valley 

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.185 Recently first International Agrobiodiversity Congress has been inaugurated by the Prime minister of India.

With reference to this conference consider the following statements :

1.It has been organized by the Ministry of Environment & forests  

2. Emission of methane gas through the agriculture activities is one of the main concern of this conference 

3. Diversified agriculture,Management of gene banks are the main emphasis of this conference

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 3

Ans. D

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first International Agro biodiversity Congress where 900 delegates from 60 countries participated. The conference was organised by the Indian Society of Plant Genetic Resources and Biodiversity International, a CGIAR Research Centre headquartered in Rome, Italy.  - The Conference will lead to discussion and knowledge sharing on issues for efficient management of gene banks, science-led innovations in genetic resources, crop diversification, issues relating to quarantine, bio safety and bio security and intellectual property rights. - Emphasis on Diversified Agriculture  Through diversified agriculture, the farmers risk in crop farming is reduced  - Now the government is working towards organic farming, integrated pest management, proving soil health cards which are towards promoting ecological framing and protection of bio diversity. This way farmers risk in agriculture can be minimised and income can be improved along with maintaining soil health.  Both centre and the states have an important role to play.

Q.184 Which one of the following is commonly used as a flavouring agent during the preparation of noodles?

A) Saffron

B) Cinnamon

C) Olive oil

D) Ajinomoto

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.183 Which among the following temples is/are the examples of the Gadag architecture ?

1. Doddabasappa temple

2. Lingaraja temple 

3.  Kasivisvesvra temple

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. A

Gadag architecture: The Gadag style of architecture is also called Western Chalukya architecture.The style flourished for 150 years (1050 to 1200 CE); in this period, about 50 temples were built. Some examples are the Saraswati temple in the Trikuteshwara temple complex at Gadag, the Doddabasappa Temple at Dambal, the Kasivisvesvara Temple at Lakkundi, and the Amriteshwara temple at Annigeri. which is marked by ornate pillars with intricate sculpture.This style originated during the period of the Kalyani Chalukyas (also known as Western Chalukya) Someswara I.
Q.182 Which among the following groups are adversely affected by inflation?

1. Wage earners in the informal sector

2. Profit earners

3. Salary earners with salary indexed to inflation

4. Pensioners with fixed pensions

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 4

B) 3 & 4

C) 1 & 2

D) 2 & 3

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA

Q.181 With reference to the ancient period what is kosagrha ?

A) Gate tower

B) Fire house

C) Wind mill

D) Storage house

Ans. B


Q.180 Some substances known as ‘Short-Lived Climate Forcers’ (SLCF) assume importance in the context of climate change. 

Which of the following is/are SLCF? 

1. Black carbon 

2. Carbon dioxide 

3. Hydrofluorocarbons 

4. Methane

A) 1,3,4

B) Only 2 & 4

C) 2,3,4

D) Only 1 & 3

Ans. A


Q.179 In food processing, which of the following is/are used as emulsifiers? 

1. Carboxymethyl cellulose 

2. Ethylene diamine tetra acetate 

3. Propylene glycol

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 3

Ans.A


Q.178 In the context of food processing, the addition of sulfites (sulphites) to fruits and vegetables has which of the following effects? 

1. Prevention of browning 

2. Increase in sour taste 

3. Destruction of thiamine 

4. Preservation of thiamine 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 & 4

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 2 & 4

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA

Q.177 In context with the ancient Tarpa dance , consider the following statements:

1. Men and women move in a circle around the Tarpa player with entwining their hands

2. The dancers usually follow the tarpa player with turning their back 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. A

One of the central aspects of many Warli paintings is the "Tarpa Dance"—the Tarpa, a trumpet-like instrument, is played in turns by different village men. Men and women entwine their hands and move in a circle around the Tarpa player. The dancers then follow him, turning and moving as he turns, never turning their back to the Tarpa. The musician plays two different notes, which direct the head dancer to either move clockwise or counterclockwise. The Tarpa player assumes a role similar to that of a snake charmer, and the dancers become the figurative snake. The dancers take a long turn in the audience and try to encircle them for entertainment. The circle formation of the dancers is also said to resemble the circle of life.

Q.176 Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants?

A) Nerium

B) Neem

C) Bourgainvillea

D) Callotropis

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA

Q.175 With reference to the ancient “Thewa art” , consider the following statements :

1. It is a jewellery form with base material of gold 

2. It is based on the Hindu mythology or Mughal court scenes, historical events or with flora and fauna motifs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B

It is a jewellery form with base material of gold or silver

Thewa is a special art of jewelry making which involves embossing of intricately worked-out sheet gold on molten glass. It evolved in Pratapgarh district, Rajasthan India. Its origin dates back to the Mughal age

Thewa is a traditional art of fusing 23K Gold with multicoloured glass. The glass is treated by a special process to have glittering effects, which in turn highlights the intricate gold work.

History of thewa art goes back 300- 500 years

FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.174 Recently for the conservation & management of which of the following lake, Ministry of Environment & Forests has 

constituted a team ?

A) Damdama lake

B) Loktak lake

C) Dal lake

D) Chilika lake

Ans. B

Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, and is famous for the phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter at various stages of decomposition) floating over it. Keibul Lamjao is the only floating national park in the world. It is located near Moirang in Manipur state, India.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.173 With reference to the Kalinga architecture, which among the following temples is/are the example of the Rekha Deula type ?

1. Lingaraj temple of Bhubaneshwar

2. Konark Sun temple

3. Jagannath temple of puri

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 1 & 3

Ans. D

Kalinga architecture

The prominent examples of Rekha Deula are Lingaraj Temple of Bhubaneswar and Jagannath Temple of Puri. 
One of the prominent example of Khakhara Deula is Vaital Deula. 
The Konark Sun Temple is a living example of Pidha Deula.


Q.172 Servants of Indian society founded by the Gopal Krishna Gokhale. Who among the following are the members :

1. B.N. Rao

2. Alladi Krishnaswamy

3. M.C. Setalvad

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

*The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune, Maharashtra, on June 12, 1905 byGopal Krishna Gokhale, who left the Deccan Education Society to form this association. 

*Along with him were a small group of educated Indians, as Natesh Appaji Dravid, Gopal Krishna Deodhar and Anant Patwardhan who wanted to promote social and human development and overthrow the British rule in India. 
*The Society organized many campaigns to promote education, sanitation, health care and fight the social evils of untouchability and discrimination, alcoholism, poverty, oppression of women and domestic abuse. 
*The publication of The Hitavada, the organ of the Society in English from Nagpur commenced in 1911.
*Prominent Indians were its members and leaders. It chose to remain away from political activities and organizations like the Indian National Congress.
*The base of the Society shrank after Gokhale's death in 1915, and in the 1920s with the rise of Mahatma Gandhi as president of Congress, who launched social reform campaigns on a mass scale throughout the nation and attracted young Indians to the cause. However, it still continues its activities albeit with a small membership.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.171 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1.Patola saris : Gujarat

2. Kullu shawl : Himachal Pradesh

3. Pattu sarees : Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the vodes given below :

A) Only 2
 
B) 1 & 3

C) 2 & 3

D) All are correct

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA 

Q.170 With reference to the Warli paintings , consider the following paintings:

1. It is an art form made without any outline before painting

2.  Human and animal bodies are represented by two inverse triangles joined at their tips. 

3. Circle, triangle, and square are the basic geometric shapes that are employed in Warli paintings

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 1 & 3

C) 2 & 3

D) All are correct

Ans. D

It is said to date back to 2500 B.C. The central motif in these paintings is surrounded by scenes portraying hunting, fishing, and farming as well as trees and animals. These rudimentary wall paintings use a set of basic geometric shapes: a circle, a triangle, and a square. These shapes are symbolic of different elements of nature. The circle and the triangle come from their observation of nature. The circle is representing the sun and the moon while the triangle is derived from mountains and pointed trees. In contrast, the square appears to be a human invention, indicating a sacred enclosure or a piece of land. The central motif in each ritual painting is the square, known as the "chalk" or "Shaukat", mostly of two types known as Devchauk and Lagnachauk. Inside a Devchauk is usually Palaghata, the mother goddess, symbolizing fertility Male gods are unusual among the Warli and are frequently related to spirits which have taken human shape. Human and animal bodies are represented by two inverse triangles joined at their tips. The upper triangle depicts the torso and the lower triangle the pelvis. Their precarious equilibrium symbolizes the balance of the universe. Another main theme of Warli art is the denotation of a triangle that is larger at the top representing a "man" and a triangle which is wider at the bottom representing a "woman".[4]Apart from ritualistic paintings, other Warli paintings covered day-to-day activities of the village people. - Apart from ritualistic paintings, other Warli paintings covered day-to-day activities of the village people.

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA 

Q.169 With reference to the Chakiarkoothu form of dance, consider the following statements :

1.It is witnessed by the Hindus of the higher castes

2.It can be staged inside temples only

3. It is recited in a quasi-dramatic style with emphasis on facial expressions & hand gestures

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

This dance form is believed to have been introduced to Kerala by the early Aryan immigrants & is performed only by the members of the Chakiar caste. A highly orthodox type of entertainment, it can be staged inside temples only & witnessed by the Hindus of the higher castes. The theatre is known as Koothambalam. The story is recited in a quasi-dramatic style with emphasis on eloquent declarations with appropriately suggestive facial expressions & hand gestures. The only accompaniments are the cymbals & the drum known as the mizhavu, made of copper with a narrow mouth on which is stretched a piece of parchment.
Q.168 Which among the following is the purpose of growing plants along the river banks ?

A) To prevent heavy rainfall

B) To prevent seepage of water underground

C) To prevent siltage & floods

D) To prevent pollution 

Ans. A


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA 

Q.167 Which among the following temple is/are the examples of the Māru-Gurjara architecture ?

1. Nagda temple

2. Carving of elephants on Jagdish temple

3. Chennakesava temple

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 1 & 3

C) Only 2

D) 1 & 2

Ans. D

- Chennakesava Temple,a protected heritage site by Archaeological Survey of India and amongst the finest examples of Hoysala architecture - Māru-Gurjara temple architecture originated somewhere in the 6th century in and around areas of Rajasthan. Māru-Gurjara architecture show the deep understanding of structures and refined skills of Rajasthani craftmen of bygone era. Māru-Gurjara architecture has two prominent styles: Maha-Maru and Maru-Gurjara. - There is a connecting link between Māru-Gurjara architecture and Hoysala temple architecture. In both of these styles architecture is treated sculpturally -- Nagda temple, an example of Māru-Gurjara architecture - Carved elephants on the walls of Jagdish Temple, Udaipur, 1651 CE, an example of Māru-Gurjara architecture
FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY 

Q.166 The relative precedence of the Private Members’ Bill in a particular category is determined by

A) The Speaker

B) The Deputy Speaker

C) The Committee on Private Members’ Bill

D) Ballot

Ans. D

A private member's bill in a parliamentary system of government is a bill (proposed law) introduced into a legislature by a legislator who is not acting on behalf of the executive branch. A "private member" is any member of parliament (MP) who is not a member of the cabinet (executive).


FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th

Q.165 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?


1. Auqaf 	-	Charitable trusts


2. Inam		-	Tax free land


3. Sama		-	immediate requirements such as food, clothes, 

			living quarters and ritual  necessities


Which among the above is/are correct ?


A) 1 & 3


B) 2 & 3


C) 1,2,3


D) Only 2


Ans. C


FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA

Q.164 In 1936 Congress declared the Ethiopian day. With reference to this, consider the following statements :

1. Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be part of all exploited people’s struggle for freedom

2. There was a schism in the congress for the support of Spanish republicans

3. Demonstrations and meetings were held all over India expressing sympathy and solidarity with the Ethiopians

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 2

B) 2  & 3

C) Only 3 

D) 1 & 3

Ans. D

When Ethiopia was attacked by fascist Italy in early 1936,
the Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be part
of all exploited people’s struggle for freedom. 
The Congress
declared 9 May to be Ethiopia Day on which demonstrations and
meetings were held all over India expressing sympathy and
solidarity with the Ethiopians. On his way back from Europe,
Jawaharlal refused to meet Mussolini, despite his repeated
invitations, lest the meeting was used for fascist propaganda.
The Congress expressed strong support for Spanish
Republicans engaged in a life and death struggle with fascist
Franco in the Spanish Civil War. In his presidential address to
the Faizpur Congress in December 1936, Nehru emphasized that
the struggle going on in Spain was not merely between
Republicans and Franco or even Fascism and democracy but
between forces of progress and reaction throughout the world.
The Congress Working Committee,
meeting in Nehru’s absence, passed a resolution viewing ‘with
grave concern the unabashed attempt that is being made by
Germany to deprive Czechoslovakia of its independence or to
reduce it to impotence,’ and sending its ‘profound sympathy to
the brave people of Czechoslovakia.” 


FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com

Q.163 With reference to the report of first national commission of labour, consider the following statements :

1. The first National Commission on Labour was set up under the leadership of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

2. It provided detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems in unorganised sector only

3. Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour laws

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 1

B) 2  & 3

C) Only 3 

D) 1 & 3

Ans. C

-The first National Commission on Labour was set up on 24th December 1966 under the Chairmanship of Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar. 
-The Commission submitted its report in August , 1969 after detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems, both in the organised and unorganised sectors. 
-The recommendations covered issues like recruitment agencies and practices, -employment service administration, training and workers education, working conditions, labour welfare, housing, social security, wages and earnings, wage policy, bonus, workers/employers organisations, industrial relations machinery etc.
-  Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour laws like the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 ( for removal of wage ceiling for coverage), the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ( mainly in respect of the unfair labour practices). The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 enhancement in the wage limit for exemption from payment of Employees’ Contribution), Factories Act, 1948.

FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com

Q.162 With reference to the Temperate rainforests, consider the following statements :

1.These are found in a belt around the equator of the Earth

2. They are less abundant than tropical rainforests

3. Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients, relatively young and less prone to damage

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 1

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. B

- Temperate rainforests are found along the Pacific coast of the USA and Canada (from northern California to Alaska), in New Zealand, Tasmania, Chile, Ireland, Scotland and Norway. They are less abundant than tropical rainforests

-- Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients, relatively young and less prone to damage.


FRAMED FROM wikipedia

Q.161 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme 

2. The scheme has been launched by the Ministry of youth affairs & sports

3. It provides easy access to information, mentor network, incubator, credit and accelerator to create a pathway for the youth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. A

The scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship


FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com

Q.160 Which among the following foods were originally from rainforests around the world ?

1. Cashewnuts

2. Brazil nuts

3. Starchy root

4. Macadamia nuts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 1 & 3

B) 2,3,4

C) Only 3

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.159 With reference to the common reporting standard, consider the following statements :

1. It is an agreement to share information on residents' assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standard

2. It is supposed to transfer all the relevant information automatically and systematically.

3. It  includes all 34 OECD countries

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

*The Common Reporting Standard (CRS), formally referred to as the Standard for Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information, is an information standard for the automatic exchange of information (AEoI), developed in the context of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). 

*The legal basis for exchange of data is the Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters and the idea is based on the USA Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) implementation agreements.

*On May 6, 2014, forty-seven countries tentatively agreed on a "common reporting standard": an agreement to share information on residents' assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standard.

*This agreement is informally referred to as GATCA (the global version of FATCA)", but "CRS is not just an extension of FATCA".

*Endorsing countries included all 34 OECD countries, as well as Argentina, Brazil, China, Colombia, Costa Rica, India, Indonesia, Latvia, Lithuania, Malaysia, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, and South Africa.
China,including Hong Kong and more than 80 other countries have agreed to become signatories.


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.158 What is a Green Box subsidy?

1. These include direct payments to farmers to limit production and certain government assistance to encourage agriculture and rural development in developing countries

2. These include government policies of Minimum support Prices (MSP) for agricultural products or any help directly related to production quantities (for eg. power, fertiliser, seeds, pesticides, irrigation
etc.)

3. These include amounts spent on research, disease control, infrastructure and food security

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 2 & 3 

B) Only 3

C) 1 & 2 

D) 1,2,3

Ans. B

Green Box subsidies include amounts spent on research, disease control, infrastructure and food security. These also include direct payments made to farmers such as income support that do not
stimulate production. These are not considered trade distorting and are encouraged.


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.157 Who among the following are the members of the BIMSTEC ?

1. Bangladesh

2. Myanmar

3. India

4. Sri Lanka

5. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4,5

B) 1,2,4,5

C) Only 1,2,4

D) 1,2,3,4,5

Ans. D

Other members of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) :
Myanmar
Nepal 
Bhutan

Resolution by BIMSTEC members :
•	Enhance cooperation in environmental protection and sustainable development. 
•	Enhance cooperation in the field of agriculture, including crops, livestock and horticulture besides fisheries. 
•	Finalize an agreement on trade in goods by 2014 with intent to promote regional commerce 
•	Conclude the Agreement on Services and Investments


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.156 Who among the following are the members of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) ?

1. Finance minister

2. Prime Minister

3. Governor of states

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 1 & 2

C) 1,2,3

D) Only 1

Ans. D 

Chairperson : The Union Finance Minister of India

Other Members: 

Governor Reserve Bank of India (RBl), Finance Secretary and/ or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary, Department of Financial Services (DFS), Chief Economic Advisor, Ministry of Finance, Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA), Chairman Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), Joint Secretary (Capital Markets), DEA, will be the Secretary of the Council,
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC): 
Apex-level body constituted by government of India Idea to constitute such a super regulatory body was first given by Raghuram Rajan Committee in 2008


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.155 Who among the following are the members of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) ?

1. UK

2. USA

3. Germany

4. France

5. Iceland

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,2,4

B) 1,2,3,3

C) 1,2,5

D) All are the members

Ans. D

NATO is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North Atlantic Treaty (signed on 4 April 1949). The organization comprises a system of collective defence through which its member states accord to mutual defense in response to an attack by any external threat.
Baltic States or countries are 3 northern European countries east of the Baltic Sea – Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania, which attained independence from the Russian Empire in the backwash of World War I. In the period between the World Wars, the Baltic States also included Finland.


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.154 Who among the following are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) ?

1. China

2. India

3. FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans.A

A non-governmental and non-profit international organization with a fixed conference date and a fixed domicile. BFA was officially introduced on February 27, 2001. Since 2002, BFA has been having its yearly conference at Boao, Hainan Province, China which now serves as the permanent site of BFA Headquarters. Each year world’s Top political and business leaders gather at Boao to brain storm on global political and economic issues.

Objectives :

To base itself on Asia and encourage and deepen the economic exchange, coordination, and cooperation within Asia and between Asia and other parts of the world. 
To offer a high-end dialog platform for governments, enterprises, experts, and scholars to collectively talk about economy, society, and environment and other pertinent subject matters.


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.153 Who among the following are not the members of the Arab League ?

1. Chad 

2. Israel

3. South Sudan

4. Libya

5. Oman

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 3,4,5

B) Only 1 & 2

C) 1,2,5

D) All are the members 

Ans. B

The Arab League was founded in Cairo in 1945 by  Egypt,  Iraq,  Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria, Transjordan (Jordan from 1946) and Yemen (North Yemen, later combined Yemen). There was a continual increase in membership during the second half of the 20th century, with additional 15 Arab states and 4 observers being admitted.


FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in 

Q.152 In context with the Manipuri dance which among the following are correct ?

1) Pure dance sequences performed in the Rasleela dances follow the specific rhythmic patterns and body movements

2) The Ras costume consists of a richly embroidered stiff skirt which extends to the feet

3) Male dancers play the Pung and Kartal while dancing.

4) The Pung and Kartal choloms are performed at all social and religious festivals

5) The dancers do not wear ankle bells to stamp out the rhythms in a theatrical display

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4,5

B) 2,3,4,5

C) 1,2,3,4

D) 1,2,3,4,5

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in 

Q.151 With reference to the Kuchipudi which among the following statements are correct ?

1) In this dancer usually stands on a brass plate locking the feet in shakatavadanam paada and moves the plate rhythmically with great dexterity

2) Techniques like dancing on the rim of a brass plate and with a pitcher full of water on the head was introduced.

3) Acrobatic dancing became part of the repertoire

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in 

Q.150 In context with the Odissi dance, which among the following are correct ?

1) Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style.

2) Lower half of the body remaining static, the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body

3) There are certain foot positions with flat, toe or heel contact

4) In addition to the leg movement, there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4

B) 2,3,4

C) 1,2,3

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in 

Q.149 Which among the following are correct with reference  to the Western Indian School ?

1) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism 

2) exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School

3) Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of art

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

The Western Indian style of painting prevailed in the region comprising Gujarat, Rajasthan and Malwa. The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts. Jainism was patronised by the Kings of the Chalukya Dynasty who ruled Gujarat and parts of Rajasthan and Malwa from 961 A.D. to the end of the 13th century. An enormous number of Jain religious manuscripts were commissioned from 12th to 16th centuries by the princes, their ministers and the rich Jain merchants for earning religious merit. Many such manuscripts are available in the Jain libraries (bhandaras) which are found at many places in Western India.
Q.148 With reference to the Miniature painting which among the following are correct ?

1) It depicts a gathering of Sufis (Muslim divines) who are seen seated in an open space and engaged in discussion

2) It displays supple naturalism of the Mughal style of the Shah Jahan period

3) In drawing, background is green and the sky is in golden colour

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Miniature painting developed During the 10th century in western part of India that is modern state of Rajasthan.These paintings are seen in hastprat [mini books written by hands ] of Vaishnav sect and Jain cult.This paintings were made to make the subject of the book more interested and to decorate the books.
Rajasthan state were integrated into western India of that time. Particular manuscript miniature painting developed in the western part of India that is modern state of Rajasthan. From 17th century “Rajput miniature painting " developed in the western part of India that is modern western state of Rajasthan. “Rajput miniature painting has its own style and beauty. 'Subjects- The subjects of these miniature paintings are in relation to the subjects of the manuscripts mostly religious and literary. Many paintings are from Sanskrit and folk literature. It is on the subject of love stories. Some paintings from Vaishnav sect of Hindu religion and some are from Jain cult. The Paintings of Vaishnav sect are regarding various occasions of the life of Lord Krishna and Gopies. Vaishnav paintings of "Gita Govinda" is about Lord Krishna. The paintings of Jain cult is concerning to Jain Lords and religious subjects. Equipments- These paintings were created on "Taadpatra" that means the leaf of the palm tree, and Paper. During that period earlier manuscripts were created from the leaf of the palm tree and later on from the paper. Characteristic- In these paintings there are very few human characters with front face are seen. Most of the human characters are seen with side profile. Big eyes, pointed nose and slim waist are the features of these paintings. The skin colours of human being are Brown and fair. The skin colour of the Lord Krishna is Blue. The colour of the hair and eyes is black. Women characters have long hair. Human characters have worn jewellery on hand, nose, neck, hair, waist and ankles. Man and women have worn traditional Indian dress, slippers and shoes. Men have turbans on the head. In these paintings trees, rivers, flowers, birds, the land, the sky, houses, traditional chairs, cushions, curtains, lamps, and human characters have been painted. Colours-Mostly Natural colours have been used in these paintings. Black, red, white, brown, blue, and yellow colours are used to decorate the paintings. Promoters- The Kings, Courtiers of the kings, wealthy businessmen, and religious leaders of the time were the promoters of these miniature paintings. Painters- Painters of these pictures were from the local society." Vaachhak " was the famous painter of the time.Painters tried to make the subject of the manuscript live by these pictures so that the readers of the manuscript can enjoy reading.


FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in 

Q.147 With reference to Pala paintings Which among the following statements are correct ?

1) The Pala painting is characterised by sinuous line and subdued tones of colour

2) It resembles the ideal forms of contemporary bronze and stone sculpture

3) It reflects feeling of the classical art of Ajanta

4) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism & Buddhism 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2,3,4

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts. 
•	Pala ruled in Bihar-Bengal region
•	Developed under Pala and Sen rulers
•	Eighth to twelfth century
•	Influence of Hindu and Buddhist
•	Focus on architecture and culture
•	The Architecture were fine finished
•	Figures were much decorated and well polished
•	Both stone and metal sculptures have been found
•	Even the stone sculptures appear as metal due to high polishing


Q.146 Which one of the following provides the best estimate of the world’s biological diversity?

A) Of about ten million species probably alive today, some 20 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than half a million have yet been actually identified by scientists

B) Of about thirty million living species, some 50 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than one million have been actually identified 

C) Of about forty five million living species, some 100 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 1.5 million have been actually identified 

D) Of about seventy five million living species, some 500 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 3 million have been actually identified

Ans. C


Q.145 Which among the following are involved with the Sattriya Dance ?

1) Hastamudras

2) Aharyas

3) Footwork 

4) Music

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4

B) 2,3,4

C) 1,2,3

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D

It  is one among the eight principal classical Indian dance traditions. In the year 2000, the Sattriya dances of Assam received recognition as one of the eight classical dance forms of India. Whereas some of the other traditions have been revived in the recent past, Sattriya has remained a living tradition since its creation by the founder of Vaishnavism in Assam, the great saint Srimanta Sankardev, in 15th century Assam. 
Srimanta Sankardev and Madhavdev created Sattriya Nritya as an accompaniment to the Ankia Naat (a form of Assamese one-act plays devised by them), which were usually performed in the sattras, monasteries associated with the Ekasarana dharma. As the tradition developed and grew within the sattras, the dance form came to be known as Sattriya Nritya, a name first coined by Maheswar Neog. Today, although Sattriya Nritya has emerged from within the confines of the sattras to a much wider recognition, the sattras continue to use the dance form for ritualistic and other purposes for which it was originally created circa 500 years ago.


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.144 Which among the following are the members of the Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) Treaty ?

1. Kazakhstan

2. Kyrgyzstan

3. Tajikistan

4. Turkmenistan 

5. Uzbekistan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 2

B) 1,3,5

C) 1,4,5

D) 1,2,3,4,5

Ans.D

The CANWFZ Treaty was inked on September 8, 2006 in Semipalatinsk by the five Central Asian nations – Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. It came into force on March 21, 2009. As chair of the CANWFZ Treaty, Kazakhstan has steered the negotiations with the five nuclear states on behalf of its Central Asian neighbors. Central-Asian parties to the CANWFZ treaty aim to make the region a nuclear-weapon free zone. For the zone to be recognized internationally, it also requires to get the so-called negative guarantees from the five nuclear weapon countries, meaning legally-binding assurances not to use nuclear weapons against the parties of the treaty and not to use the threat of the use of nuclear weapons against them. The Protocol signed on May 6, 2014 in New York provides all these guarantees.  The Protocol awaits ratification by the parliaments of the signing states enter into effect.
Apart from the newly created Central-Asian zone, there are four other nuclear weapons free zones in the world, including in Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South-East Asia and the South Pacific. 


FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com

Q.143 With reference to the tropical rainforests, consider the following statements:

1. Rainforests are very dense, warm, wet forests that are havens for millions of plants and animals.

2. These are found in a belt around the equator of the Earth

3. Soil of a tropical rainforest is only about 3-4 inches thick and thick clay lies underneath the soil. 

4. They remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and store it in their roots, stems, leaves, and branches

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 1 & 2

B) 1,2,4

C) Only 3

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com

Q.142 Which among the following is/are the examples of detrivores ?

1. Vultures

2. Worms

3. Crabs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 2

B) Only 1

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans.D 


Q.141 Which of the following temples is the earliest in time ?

A) Gupta temple at Deogarh

B) Jandial temple

C) Kailasanath temple at kanchipuram

D) Sun temple at Martand 

Ans. A

Gupta temple at Deogarh :

The Vishnu Temple is located at Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh in Central India built circa 500 CE. The temple is one of the earliest Hindu stone temples still surviving today. Built in the late Gupta Period, Vishnu Temple shows the ornate beauty seen in Gupta style architecture. This temple is also a good resource for examining Gupta style sculptures and art.

Jandial temple :

Jandial near the city of Taxila in Pakistan is the site of an ancient temple well known for its is Ionic columns. The temple is located 630 meters north of the northern gate of Sirkap. The Temple was excavated in 1912-1913 by the Archaeological Survey of India under John Marshall. It has been called "the most Hellenic structure yet found on Indian soil".

Kailasanath temple at kanchipuram:

It is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram.Located in Tamil Nadu, India, it is a Hindu temple in the Dravidian architectural style. It is dedicated to the Lord Shiva, and is known for its historical importance. The temple was built from 685-705AD by a Rajasimha ruler of the Pallava Dynasty. The low-slung sandstone compound contains a large number of carvings, including many half-animal deities which were popular during the early Dravidian architectural period. The structure contains 58 small shrines which are dedicated to various forms of Shiva. These are built into niches on the inner face of the high compound wall of the circumambulatory passage. The temple is one of the most prominent tourist attractions of the city.

Sun temple at Martand

The Martand Sun Temple was a Kashmiri Hindu temple dedicated to Surya and built during the 8th century CE. Martand is another Sanskrit name for the Hindu Sun-god. Now in ruins, the temple is located five miles from Anantnag in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q.140 Consider the following :

1. On Indian painting Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings. 

2. These painting’s do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but depict social life. 

3. Images of human being’s and animals along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern. 

4. Painted white on mud walls, they are pretty close to prehistoric cave paintings in execution and usually depict scenes of human figures engaged in activities like hunting, dancing. sowing and harvesting, 

Above statements characterizes which one of the following folk and art form of India?

A) Tanjore art

B) Madhubani painting

C) Warli folk painting

D) Pattachitra painting

Ans. B 


Q.139 Which of the statements about Bhakti movement is not correct ?

A) Ramanuja taught at the Meenakshi temple of Madurai

B) Founder of Madhava sect was Kanadese Brahmin

C) Telugu Brahmin Nimbarka settled near Mathura & greatly influenced bhakti movement

D) Impact of Sahajiyas, Tantrics , & nathyogis led to the development of the North Indian Sant tradition

Ans. A

Rāmānuja became a priest at the Varadharāja Perumal temple (Vishnu) at Kānchipuram, where he began to teach that moksha (liberation and release from samsara) is to be achieved not with metaphysical, nirguna Brahman but with the help of personal god and saguna Vishnu. Rāmānuja has long enjoyed foremost authority in the Sri Vaishnava tradition

- Madhvācārya was born on the west coast of Karnataka state in 13th-century India. As a teenager, he became a Sanyasin (monk) joining Brahma-sampradaya guru Achyutapreksha, of the Ekadandi order. Madhva studied the classics of Hindu philosophy, particularly the Principal Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita and the Brahma Sutras (Prasthanatrayi). He commented on these, and is credited with thirty seven works in Sanskrit.

-The Bhakti movement of Hinduism saw two ways of imaging the nature of the divine (Brahman) – Nirguna and Saguna.

Nirguna Brahman was the concept of the Ultimate Reality as formless, without attributes or quality. Saguna Brahman, in contrast, was envisioned and developed as with form, attributes and quality. Nirguna bhakta's poetry were Jnana-shrayi, or had roots in knowledge. Saguna bhakta's poetry were Prema-shrayi, or with roots in love.
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.138 With reference to the Harappan Civilization consider the following statements:

1. The city of Dholavira was in the form of a parallelogram guarded by a fortification.

2. A ploughed-field, showing a grid of furrows, located outside the town-wall has been discovered at Kalibangan.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C

Unlike Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, the city was constructed to a pre-existing geometrical plan consisting of three divisions – the citadel, the middle town, and the lower town. The acropolis and the middle town had been furnished with their own defence-work, gateways, built-up areas, street system, wells, and large open spaces. The acropolis is the most thoroughly fortified and complex area in the city, of which it appropriates the major portion of the southwestern zone. The towering "castle" stands is defended by double ramparts. Next to this stands a place called the 'bailey' where important officials lived. The city within the general fortifications accounts for 48 ha (120 acres). There are extensive structure-bearing areas which are outside yet integral to the fortified settlement. Beyond the walls, another settlement has been found. The most striking feature of the city is that all of its buildings, at least in their present state of preservation, are built of stone, whereas most other Harappan sites, including Harappa itself and Mohenjo-daro, are almost exclusively built of brick. Dholavira is flanked by two storm water channels; the Mansar in the north, and the Manhar in the south.


FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 7th HISTORY

Q.137 With reference to the  Medieval period, what was/were Bandagan ?

A) Special slaves purchased for military service

B) Special kind of cloth made up of Kirpas 

C) Generals & Governors

D) Advisor of Kings

Ans. A


FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.136 With reference to the IMF quota, consider the following statements

1. Each IMF member country is assigned a quota  that reflects the country’s relative size in the global economy

2. India’s IMF quota has been reduced since past years

3. The largest members of the IMF are the United States & India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. B

The largest members of the IMF is the United States & Tuvalu is the lowest

Each member’s quota also determines its relative voting power


Q.135 Which of the following does not describe the part of the classic Hindu temple ?

A) Mandapa

B) Garbagriha

C) Antarala

D) Tribhanga

Ans. D

North Indian temples are referred to as Nagara style of temple architecture. They have sanctum sanctorum where the deity is present, open on one side from where the devotee obtains darśana. There may or may not be many more surrounding corridors, halls, etc. However, there will be space for devotees to go around the temple in clockwise fashion circumambulation. In North Indian temples, the tallest towers are built over the sanctum sanctorum in which the deity is installed. The north India Nagara style of temple designs often deploy fractal-theme, where smaller parts of the temple are themselves images or geometric re-arrangement of the large temple, a concept found in French and Russian architecture such as the matryoshka principle. One difference is the scope and cardinality, where Hindu temple structures deploy this principle in every dimension with garbhgriya as the primary locus, and each pada as well as zones serving as additional centers of loci. This makes a Nagara Hindu temple architecture symbolically a perennial expression of movement and time, of centrifugal growth fused with the idea of unity in everything.


TRIBHANGA It is the standing body position or stance used in the traditional Indian sculpture, art and Indian classical dance forms like the Odissi. Tribhanga, literally meaning three parts break, consists of three bends in the body; at the neck, waist and knee, hence the body is oppositely curved at waist and neck which gives it a gentle "S" shape and is considered the most graceful and sensual of the Odissi positions. It has been closely associated with the Hindu deity Krishna who is often portrayed in this posture. It is characterized by various Bhangas or stance, which involves stamping of the foot and striking various postures as seen in Indian sculptures, they are four in number, namely Bhanga, Abanga, Atibhanga and Tribhanga being the most common of all.

Q.134 Chinook is :

A) Warm & dry wind on the eastern slopes of the rockies

B) Violent & extremely cold wind of the Tundras

C) Extremely cold wind in central Siberia

D) Dry & dusty wind off the west coast of Africa blowing from the deserts 

Ans. A
Chinook means the 'snow-eater’.This is the hot and dry wind blowing along the eastern slope of the Rockies and covers an area from the southern part of Colorado in the south to British Columbia in Canada in the North. The Chinook is a föhn wind, a rain shadow wind which results from the subsequent adiabatic warming of air which has dropped most of its moisture on windward slopes (orographic lift). As a consequence of the different adiabatic rates of moist and dry air, the air on the leeward slopes becomes warmer than equivalent elevations on the windward slopes. As moist winds from the Pacific (also called Chinooks) are forced to rise over the mountains, the moisture in the air is condensed and falls out as precipitation, while the air cools at the moist adiabatic rate of 5 °C/1000 m (3.5 °F/1000 ft). Plants can be visibly brought out of dormancy by persistent Chinook winds, or have their hardiness reduced even if they appear to be remaining dormant.

Q.133 Consider the following statements :

1. Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Gupta dominance in Central India

2. The Martand temple in Kashmir was built during the reign of Lalitaditya Muktapida

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B
*Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Chandela rulers. *The Martand temple was built on top of a plateau from where one can view whole of the Kashmir Valley. From the ruins and related archaeological findings, it can be said it was an excellent specimen of Kashmiri architecture, which had blended the Gandharan, Gupta, Chinese, Roman, Syrian-Byzantine and Greek forms of architecture. *The temple has a colonnaded courtyard, with its primary shrine in its center and surrounded by 84 smaller shrines, stretching to be 220 feet long and 142 feet broad total and incorporating a smaller temple that was previously built. *The temple turns out to be the largest example of a peristyle in Kashmir, and is complex due to its various chambers that are proportional in size and aligned with the overall perimeter of the temple. In accordance with Hindu temple architecture, the primary entrance to the temple is situated in the western side of the quadrangle and is the same width as the temple itself, creating grandeur. *The entrance is highly reflective of the temple as a whole due to its elaborate decoration and allusion to the deities worshiped inside. The primary shrine is located in a centralized structure (the temple proper) that is thought to have had a pyramidal top - a common feature of the temples in Kashmir. Various wall carvings in the antechamber of the temple proper depict other gods, such as Vishnu, and river goddesses, such as Ganga and Yamuna, in addition to the sun-god Surya.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU-EDITORIAL 

Q.132 Recently Zealandia has been given the status of a continent. Which among the following habitable areas fall under zealandia ?

1. New Zealand

2. New Caledonia

3. Norfolk Island

4. Lord Howe Island Group

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 1,2,3

D) All are correct

Ans. D

It is located on the southwest Pacific Ocean mostly surrounding, in what is the current land mass of New Zealand and its adjoining islands.

Zealandia has recently been given the status of a continent by several geologists who say that the long lost continent is submerged under water. While there is no formal recognition of the same by the New Zealand government, which is the major habitable administration on Zealandia; there is, however, wide interest in the media about the continent.


Q.131 Consider the following statements :

1. Borobudur is a world renowned Buddhist monument of Cambodia

2. Angkor wat is a well known Buddhist temple complex located in Indonesia

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both 1 & 2

D) Neither 1 & 2

Ans. D

*Borobodur is a 9th-century Mahayana Buddhist Temple in Magelang, Central Java, Indonesia. 

*Angkor Wat is a temple complex in Cambodia and the largest religious monument in the world. 

*It was originally constructed as a Hindu temple for the Khmer Empire, gradually transforming into a Buddhist temple toward the end of the 12th century. It was built by the Khmer King Suryavarman II.


Q.130 Subsistence & commercial freshwater fisheries are well developed in south eastern Asia. It is because of

1. Low precipitation

2. Large perennial streams

3. Dense population

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) Only 2

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. B


Q.129 The total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not exceed :

A) One-fourth of the total members in the legislative assembly

B) Two-third of the total members in the legislative assembly

C) Half of the total members in the legislative assembly

D) One third of the total members in the legislative assembly 

Ans. D

Q.128 The three movements of Gandhi were named as Non-Cooperation movement, Civil disobedience movement & Quit India movement because

1. Gandhi wanted to attract the Indian masses to his movements by giving it a different name each time

2. When a movement failed he did not want to use the same name for his new movement 

3. Each movement was more rigorous than the previous one

4. Gandhi prepared the masses slowly from non-cooperating in 1921 to telling the British to quit India in 1942.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

A) 1,2,3,4

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,4

D) 3 & 4

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM public.wmo.int, World Meteorological Organisation

Q.127 Recently WMO has signified which among the following effects of Ei-Nino in its report ? 

1. Ei Nino event has been successful in triggering the CO2 level resulting in warming influence

2. El Niño event had triggered droughts in tropical & temperate regions 

3. Capacity of “sinks” to absorb co2 has been reduced 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. C

El Niño event had triggered drought in tropical region

WMO is an intergovernmental organization and specialised agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.

“sinks” includes like forests, vegetation.


FRAMED FROM Wikipedia 

Q.126 Living Planet Report is the world's leading, science-based analysis on the health of planet. With reference to this report consider the following statements :

1. Ecological footprint calculation is the only basis for the publication of this report

2. It is published every year by the World Wide Fund for Nature 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D
The Living Planet Report is published every two years by the World Wide Fund for Nature since 1998. It is based on the Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculations. The Living Planet Report is the world's leading, science-based analysis on the health of our only planet and the impact of human activity. Humanity's demands exceed the Earth's capacity to sustain us. The latest edition of the Living Planet Report was released in October 2016.
FRAMED FROM Wikepedia 

Q.125 The survey of India works under which of the following ministries of the government of India ?

A) Minister of Defence

B) Ministry of Home Affairs

C) Ministry of Science & Technology

D) Ministry of Tourism & Culture

Ans.C


FRAMED FROM Laxmikant-Indian polity

Q.124 Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at

A) First hour of the sitting

B) Last hour of the sitting

C) 12.00 noon

D) No fixed timings

Ans. C

Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions.
Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. 
Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards.

FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA

Q.123 In context with the gravitation waves, consider the following statements :

1. They generally propagate as waves greater than the speed of light 

2. Enigmaic sources are the strongest sources of the gravitational waves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B

They are among enigmatic objects in our universe like black holes, supernova, neutron stars and Big Bang.

They travel outward from the source at the speed of light.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA

Q.122 Who among the following publishes Global Youth Development Index ?

A) Commonwealth Secretariat

B) World Economic Forum

C) Security Council

D) Global Innovation

Ans. A

India has been ranked 133rd out of 183 countries in the 2016 Global Youth Development Index (YDI) compiled by the Commonwealth Secretariat. The Global Youth Development Index report measures countries’ prospects for young people in employment, education, health, civic and political spheres.


FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.121 With reference to the Vijayanagar empire, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Samara		-		Battle or war

2.Yavana		-		Greeks and other peoples who entered the subcontinent from the north west.

3. Kuddirai Chettis	-		Local communities of merchants 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) Only 2

Ans. C
The amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the raya. They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area. They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants. These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control. Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works.

FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.120 Which among the following were the observations regarding the physical layout of the Vijayanagar empire ?

1. Embankments were built along these streams to create reservoirs of varying sizes

2. Fortifications encircled only the city but not its agricultural hinterland and forests
	
3. No mortar or cementing agent was employed anywhere in the construction.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) Only 2

Ans. A
Additional points : The stone blocks were wedge shaped, which held them in place, and the inner portion of the walls was of earth packed with rubble. Square or rectangular bastions projected outwards. Abdur Razzaq noted that “ between the first, second and the third walls there are cultivated fields, gardens and houses.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.119 With reference to the LIDAR (Light Detection & ranging) consider the following statements :

1. LIDAR uses ultraviolet & visible light only to detect the objects 

2. They can target a wide range of materials except non-metallic objects 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D
Lidar uses ultraviolet, visible, or near infrared light to image objects. It can target a wide range of materials, including non-metallic objects, rocks, rain, chemical compounds, aerosols, clouds and even single molecules.A narrow laser-beam can map physical features with very high resolutions; for example, an aircraft can map terrain at 30-centimetre (12 in) resolution or better. Lidar has been used extensively for atmospheric research and meteorology. Lidar instruments fitted to aircraft and satellites carry out surveying and mapping – a recent example being the U.S. Geological Survey Experimental Advanced Airborne Research Lidar.NASA has identified lidar as a key technology for enabling autonomous precision safe landing of future robotic and crewed lunar-landing vehicles. Wavelengths vary to suit the target: from about 10 micrometers to the UV (approximately 250 nm). Typically light is reflected via backscattering. Different types of scattering are used for different lidar applications: most commonly Rayleigh scattering, Mie scattering, Raman scattering, and fluorescence. Based on different kinds of backscattering, the lidar can be accordingly called Rayleigh Lidar, Mie Lidar, Raman Lidar, Na/Fe/K Fluorescence Lidar, and so on. Suitable combinations of wavelengths can allow for remote mapping of atmospheric contents by identifying wavelength-dependent changes in the intensity of the returned signal. In general there are two kinds of lidar detection schemes: "incoherent" or direct energy detection (which is principally an amplitude measurement) and coherent detection (which is best for Doppler, or phase sensitive measurements). Coherent systems generally use optical heterodyne detection, which, being more sensitive than direct detection, allows them to operate at a much lower power but at the expense of more complex transceiver requirements. Lidar is popularly used to make high-resolution maps, with applications in geodesy, geomatics, archaeology, geography, geology, geomorphology, seismology, forestry, atmospheric physics, laser guidance, airborne laser swath mapping (ALSM), and laser altimetry. Lidar sometimes is called laser scanning and 3D scanning, with terrestrial, airborne, and mobile applications.

FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.118 With reference to the fast neutron reactor consider the following statements:

1. In this nuclear fission & fusion chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons

2. Neutron moderators are employed in these type of reactors 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D
A fast neutron reactor or simply a fast reactor is a category of nuclear reactor in which the fission chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons. Such a reactor needs no neutron moderator, but must use fuel that is relatively rich in fissile material when compared to that required for a thermal reactor. Natural uranium consists mostly of three isotopes, U-238, U-235, and trace quantities of U-234, a decay product of U-238. U-238 accounts for roughly 99.3% of natural uranium and undergoes fission only by neutrons with energies of 5 MeV or greater, the so-called fast neutrons. About 0.7% of natural uranium is U-235, which undergoes fission by neutrons of any energy, but particularly by lower energy neutrons. When either of these isotopes undergoes fission they release neutrons around 1 to 2 MeV, too low to cause fission in U-238, and too high to do so easily in U-235. The common solution to this problem is to slow the neutron from these fast speeds using a neutron moderator, any substance which interacts with the neutrons and slows their speed. The most common moderator is normal water, which slows the neutrons through inelastic scattering until the neutrons reach thermal equilibrium with the water. Fast neutron reactors can reduce the total radiotoxicity of nuclear waste, and dramatically reduce the waste's lifetime.[6] They can also use all or almost all of the fuel in the waste. Fast neutrons have an advantage in the transmutation of nuclear waste. With fast neutrons, the ratio between splitting and the capture of neutrons of plutonium or minor actinide is often larger than when the neutrons are slower, at thermal or near-thermal "epithermal" speeds. The transmuted odd-numbered actinides (e.g. from Pu-240 to Pu-241) split more easily Fast reactors technically solve the "fuel shortage" argument against uranium-fueled reactors without assuming unexplored reserves, or extraction from dilute sources such as ordinary granite or the ocean. Sodium is often used as a coolant in fast reactors, because it does not moderate neutron speeds much and has a high heat capacity. However, it burns and foams in air. It has caused difficulties in reactors Since liquid metals have low moderating power and ratio and no other moderator is present, the primary interaction of neutrons with liquid metal coolants is the (n,gamma) reaction, which induces radioactivity in the coolant Water, the most common coolant in thermal reactors, is generally not a feasible coolant for a fast reactor, because it acts as a neutron moderator However the Generation IV reactor known as the supercritical water reactor with decreased coolant density may reach a hard enough neutron spectrum to be considered a fast reactor All current fast reactors are liquid metal cooled reactors. The early Clementine reactor used mercury coolant and plutonium metal fuel. Sodium-potassium alloy (NaK) coolant is popular in test reactors due to its low melting point. In practice, sustaining a fission chain reaction with fast neutrons means using relatively highly enriched uranium or plutonium. most fast neutron reactors have used either MOX (mixed oxide) or metal alloy fuel. Like thermal reactors, fast neutron reactors are controlled by keeping the criticality of the reactor reliant on delayed neutrons, with gross control from neutron-absorbing control rods or blades. - Doppler broadening in the moderator, which affects thermal neutrons, does not work, nor does a negative void coefficient of the moderator. Both techniques are very common in ordinary light water reactors.

Q.117 India is a member of:

1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)

2. Asian Development Bank (ADB)

3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

4.World Trade Organization (WTO)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 and 4

C) 2,3 and 4

D) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans. B


Q.116 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana , consider the following statements :

1. Farmers will pay uniform premium of 2 per cent for all Kharif crops and 1.5 percent for all Rabi crops

2. provision of capping the premium rate has been removed 

3. Encouragement of use of technology such as use of smart phones & remote sensing satellite 

Which among the above is/are correct ?

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

The new Crop Insurance Scheme has been formulated in line with One Nation–One Scheme theme.  It replaces existing two schemes viz. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) by removing their inherent drawbacks (shortcomings).
There will be no upper limit subsidy given by Government even if balance premium is 90 percent.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.115 A geographical indication is used for products that have a specific  geographical  origin. 

GI is governed by which of the following legal authorities :

1. WTO

2. TRIPS

3. Food & agriculture organization

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1 & 2

D) All are correct

Ans. C
A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin (e.g. a town, region, or country). The GI tag is an indication which is definite to a geographical territory. It is used for agricultural, natural and manufactured goods. For a product to get GI tag, the goods need to be produced or processed or prepared in that region. It is also essential that the product has special quality or reputation.

FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.114 With reference to the National Innovation Fund, consider the following statements :

1. It is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology

2. It provides institutional support for scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country

3. NIF is mandated to build a national register of traditional knowledge practices related to agriculture, plants, animal health and human health

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 2 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 1 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D
National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country. NIF is a national initiative to serve the knowledge-rich, economically poor people of the country. It is committed to making India innovative by documenting, adding value, protecting the Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) of the contemporary, unaided technological innovators as well as of outstanding traditional knowledge holders and disseminating them on a commercial as well as non-commercial basis. NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies, developed by farmers, mechanics, artisans and others, through their own genius, without any recourse to professional help. NIF then gets these innovations validated with the help of experts and ascertains the novelty in these innovations by conducting Prior Art Search (PAS). If the innovation is deemed novel, NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator in his/her name. NIF also funds value-addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people. Being organised since 2008, IGNITE is an annual competition for student’s ideas and innovations conducted by NIF in partnership with the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). Some state education boards also partner in the same. All students up to Standard 12 from any school (and of the same age group but out of school) in India are eligible to participate in the competition. The IGNITE awards [3] are announced on October 15, the birthday of Bharat Ratna Dr A P J Abdul Kalam, the former President of India, which is celebrated as the Children's Creativity and Innovation Day by NIF. In 2015, IGNITE competition was renamed as Dr A P J Abdul Kalam IGNITE competition in the memory of Dr Kalam so that the creative children continue to draw inspiration from his spirit. NIF is mandated to build a national register of ideas, innovations and traditional knowledge (TK) practices related to agriculture, plants, animal health and human health. With the help of the Honey Bee Network, NIF has been able to scout and document over 2,25,000 examples of technological ideas, innovations and traditional practices.[4] Since its inception, NIF has also recognised over 816 grassroots innovators, young students and outstanding traditional knowledge holders in its various national awards, providing them a platform to showcase their creativity.[5] Through the collaborations with various research and development (R&D) and academic institutions, agricultural and veterinary universities and others, NIF has helped in getting thousands of grassroots technologies validated and value-added. It has also set up a Fabrication Laboratory (Fab Lab) with the help of Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), Boston for product development, apart from strengthening in-house research and development facilities for the initial validation of herbal technologies.

FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.113 Which among the following is/are the composition of the reconstituted Inter state Council ?

1. Chief Minister

2. All the Union Ministers

3. Prime Minister

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 1 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. B
Only 6 Union Ministers are there. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between states and the centre. It is a recommendatory body to investigate and discuss subjects, in which some or all of the states or the Central government have a common interest. It is set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Order, 1990 based on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.

Q.112 In ancient India “ Gutika” meant :

A) Colleges

B) Hospitals

C) Mountains

D) Viharas

Ans. B


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.111 Consider the differences between the recently discovered S-waves microseism & P-waves microseism :

1. S-waves microseism are bright as compared to the P-waves

2. P wave microseisms can be detected easily during major hurricanes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B
S-waves microseism are faint as compared to the P-waves It will help experts learn more about the Earth’s inner structure and improve detection of earthquakes and oceanic storms. Learning more about S waves microseismic will further aid to understand the deeper crust and upper mantle structure.
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.110 Polymetallic nodules contains which among the following constituents :

1. Nickel

2. Copper

3. Calcium

4. Oxygen

5. Hydrogen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 & 2 

B) 1,2,3,5

C) 1,2,3

D) All are correct

Ans. D
The chemical composition of nodules varies according to the kind of manganese minerals and the size and characteristics of the core. Those of greatest economic interest contain manganese (27-30%), nickel (1.25-1.5 %), copper (1-1.4 %) and cobalt (0.2-0.25 %). Other constituents include iron (6%), silicon (5%) and aluminium (3%), with lesser amounts of calcium, sodium, magnesium, potassium, titanium and barium, along with hydrogen and oxygen as well as water of crystallization and free water. Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are rock concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core. The core may be microscopically small and is sometimes completely transformed into manganese minerals by crystallization. When visible to the naked eye, it can be a small test (shell) of a microfossil (radiolarian or foraminifer), a phosphatized shark tooth, basalt debris or even fragments of earlier nodules
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA 

Q.109 Global Gender Report is released by which of the following 

A) World bank

B) World Trade Organisation 

C) International Monetary Fund 

D) World Economic Forum

Ans. D
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality. The highest possible score is 1 (equality or better for women, except for lifespan, 106% or better for women) and the lowest possible score is 0. Data for some countries are unavailable.

FRAMED FROM LIVE MINT & WIKEPEDIA 

Q.108 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, consider the following statements :

1. This scheme is applicable only to the women during their pregnancy period 

2. Tests will take place at the government hospitals only

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D
The scheme is applicable only to the women in their pregnancy period of 3 to 6 months. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan or Yojana is a new initiative of the Narendra Modi Government launched on June 9, 2016. The scheme has been launched with the objective of boosting the health care facilities for the pregnant women, especially the poor. Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the pregnant ladies will be given free health check-up and required treatment for free on 9th of every month. The scheme will be applicable for pregnant women to avail in all Government hospitals across the country The scheme is applicable only for the pregnant women All kinds of medical checkups under this scheme will be completely free Tests will took place at the medical centers, government and private hospitals and private clinics across the country

FRAMED FROM THE HINDU 

Q.107 Recently which among the following state has adopted fly ash utilization policy ?

A) Maharashtra 

B) Punjab

C) Karnataka

D) Tamil Nadu

Ans. A

Fly ash is a fine, glass powder by-product recovered from gases of burning coal in thermal power plants during production of electricity. They are micron sized earth elements primarily consisting silica, alumina and iron.
Fly ash causes air pollution. It can also contaminate water and soil systems. The wet disposal of Fly ash results in leaching of toxic heavy metals in ground water system.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU 

Q.106 Under IUCN , Fishing cat has been classified under which category ?

A) Endangered

B) Vulnerable

C) Extinct

D) Critically endangered

Ans. B

The fishing cat is broadly but discontinuously distributed in Asia, and is primarily found in the Terai region of the Himalayan foothills in India and Nepal, in eastern India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka. There are no confirmed records from Peninsular Malaysia, Vietnam and Laos.
In India, the presence of fishing cats has been documented in Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve, in Sur Sarovar Bird Sanctuary, outside protected areas in West Bengal, in and around Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary, in Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining reserve forests in Andhra Pradesh.


FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17 

Q.105 With reference to the Trans-Atlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP), consider the following statements :

1.It is a proposed trade agreement between the India and the United States, with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth

2. The reports on the TTIP proposals can be accessed only by authorised persons

3. Creation of million of new jobs is one of the pillar of TTIP

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1 & 2

D) All are correct

Ans. B
The Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP) is a proposed trade agreement between the European Union and the United States, with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth. The American government considers the TTIP a companion agreement to the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP).The agreement is under ongoing negotiations and its main three broad areas are: market access; specific regulation; and broader rules and principles and modes of co-operation. TTIP aims to "liberalise one-third of global trade" and could create millions of new jobs
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17 

Q.104 With reference to the Unified payment interface consider the following statements :

1. It is a payment system regulated by the National Payments Corporation of India

2. It facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantly

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system launched by National Payments Corporation of India and regulated by Reserve Bank of India which facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantly. UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is an advanced version of Immediate Payment Service(IMPS) platform designed for transferring funds using: Transfer through Virtual Payment Address (Unique ID provided by bank) or Account Number + IFSC or Mobile Number + MMID or Aadhaar Number or Collect / Pull money basis Virtual ID. An MPIN is given to the banking customer once they register for UPI which is required to be entered while confirming a money transfer.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th BIO

Q.103 DNA Index System (DIS) allows generation of DNA profiles from which of the following samples :

1. Saliva

2. Blood strains 

3. Buccal Swabs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) 1 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) 1 & 2

Ans. C
DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting, DNA testing, or DNA typing) is a forensic technique used to identify individuals by characteristics of their DNA. A DNA profile is a small set of DNA variations that is very likely to be different in all unrelated individuals, thereby being as unique to individuals as are fingerprints (hence the alternate name for the technique). DNA profiling should not be confused with full genome sequencing. DNA fingerprinting has also been widely used in the study of animal and floral populations and has revolutionized the fields of zoology, botany, and agriculture A common method of collecting a reference sample is the use of a buccal swab, which is easy, non-invasive and cheap. When this is not available (e.g. because a court order is needed but not obtainable) other methods may need to be used to collect a sample of blood, saliva, semen, or other appropriate fluid or tissue from personal items (e.g. a toothbrush, razor) or from stored samples (e.g. banked sperm or biopsy tissue). Samples obtained from blood relatives (related by birth, not marriage) can provide an indication of an individual's profile, as could human remains that had been previously profiled. Using PCR technology, DNA analysis is widely applied to determine genetic family relationships such as paternity, maternity, siblingship and other kinships. Familial DNA searching (sometimes referred to as “Familial DNA” or “Familial DNA Database Searching”) is the practice of creating new investigative leads in cases where DNA evidence found at the scene of a crime (forensic profile) strongly resembles that of an existing DNA profile (offender profile) in a state DNA database but there is not an exact match.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU

Q.102 Recently India has signed Dollar credit line agreement with which of the following country ?

A) China

B) Nepal

C) Pakistan

D) Iran

Ans. B


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Q.101 Recently Kigali agreement has amended 1987 montreal protocol. With reference to this agreement consider the following statements ;

1. As per this agreement HFCs is the only gas responsible for global warming apart from other gases

2. 500 million us dollar is the amount of additional funding from developed countries 

3. Kigali agreement will be binding on countries from 2019

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 1 & 2

C) Only 1

D) 2 & 3

Ans. A
Amended Montreal Protocol which was initially conceived only to plug gases that were destroying the ozone layer now includes HFCs responsible for global warming. The exact amount of additional funding from developed countries will be agreed at the next Meeting of the Parties in Montreal in 2017. The Paris agreement which will come into force by 2020 is not legally binding on countries to cut their emissions. The Kigali Amendment is considered absolutely vital for reaching the Paris Agreement target of keeping global temperature rise to below 2-degree Celsius compared to pre-industrial times.
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Q.100 HIMANSH often in the news is :

A) Glaciological research station

B) Submarine vessel

C) Micro satellite

D) Nuclear Vessel

Ans. A
A high altitude glaciological research station in Himalaya called Himansh (meaning a slice of ice) began functioning above 13,500 ft (4000 m) in a remote region in Spiti, Himachal Pradesh. The station houses instruments to quantify glacier melting and its relation to changing climate. It will also serve as the base for Terrestrial Laser Scanners (TLS) and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) for undertaking surveys.
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Q.99 How recently developed Zika replicon system will be helpful in developing vaccine for Zika virus ?

1. It will deteriorate the structure of the virus by deleting some of its genes 

2. Replicons are the segments of viral genome that are dependent of the cellular chromosome

3. They will be used to locate portions of the viral molecule that block or halt viral replication

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1 & 3

D) All are correct

Ans. C

Replicons are basically segments of viral genome that can replicate on their own, independent of the cellular chromosome.
It has also become important to deal with Zika virus which is spreading rapidly and behaves differently than other viruses as it can be transmitted sexually and is associated with microcephaly and Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS).


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Q.98 In context with the news what is Digishala ?

A) 24 hour government TV channel for cashless lessons

B) TV series to be launched for cashless lessons

C) A short film based on cashless lessons

D) None of the above 

Ans. A


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Q.97 Jaguar DARIN III often in the news is :

A) Twin seat aircraft

B) Anti tank missile

C) Rocket launcher

D) Submarine vessel

Ans. A


FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17

Q.96 Which among the following commodities are covered under the Baltic Dry index ?

1. Coal

2. Grain

3. Iron Ore

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 3

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1 & 2

D) All are correct

Ans. D
The Baltic Dry Index (BDI) is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange. Not restricted to Baltic Sea countries, the index provides "an assessment" of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea. Taking in 23 shipping routes measured on a timecharter basis, the index covers Handysize, Supramax, Panamax, and Capesize dry bulk carriers carrying a range of commodities including coal, iron ore and grain. Most directly, the index measures the demand for shipping capacity versus the supply of dry bulk carriers. The demand for shipping varies with the amount of cargo that is being traded or moved in various markets (supply and demand). - Another index, the HARPEX, focuses on containers freight. It provides an insight on the transport of a much wider base of commercial goods than commodities alone. HARPEX is regarded as a Current-Activity Indicator, because it measures and charts the changes in freight rates for 'container ships.' Container ships typically carry a wide variety of finished goods from a multitude of sellers. These are factory output goods headed for retail markets, at the other end of the supply chain
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Q.95 With reference to the Cocoas bonds, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements :

1. These are the hybrid bonds that combine debt and equity elements

2. These are considered as the most secured bonds issued by banks 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. A

These are known as Additional Tier-1 bonds.

They are the riskiest debt issued by banks and do not have any set maturity date.

A contingent convertible bond (CoCo), also known as an enhanced capital note (ECN) is a fixed-income instrument that is convertible into equity if a pre-specified trigger event occurs.The concept of CoCo has been particularly discussed in the context of crisis management in the banking industry. It has been also emerging as an alternative way for keeping solvency in the insurance industry.

A contingent convertible bond is defined with two elements: the trigger and the conversion rate. While the trigger is the pre-specified event causing the conversion process, the conversion rate is the actual rate at which debt is swapped for equity.The trigger, which can be bank specific, systemic, or dual, has to be defined in a way ensuring automatic and inviolable conversion.A possibility of a dynamic sequence exists—conversion occurs at different pre-specified thresholds of the trigger event.Since the trigger can be subject to accounting or market manipulation, a commonly used measure has been the market’s measure of bank’s solvency.The design of the trigger and the conversion rate are critical in the instrument’s effectiveness.


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Q.94 What is Urja Ganga, that has been recently in news ?

A) It is a mission to clean holy river by 2020

B) It is a project of Gas pipeline to provide cooking gas

C) It aims to reduce pollutants from Ganga river

D) None of the above

Ans. B

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Q.93 Recently in the news there was a term “Selfie Stick”. What is this ?

A) A micro satellite

B) A printer

C) A Graphene transistor

D) A newly launched i-phone

Ans. A
The micro-satellite Banxing-2 is roughly the size of a desktop printer and the media has nicknamed “Selfie Stick”. It weighs 47 kilogrammes. Micro satellites weigh around 500 to 100 kilograms. They are usually cheaper, faster and more advanced than traditional satellites. The commercial potential has attracted much attention from businesses.

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Q.92 Which among the following organic compound is present in the whitener that has been banned under the montreal protocol ?

A) 1,1,1-trichloroethane

B) Toluene

C) Trichloroehtylene

D) Bromopropane

Ans. A

This question has been framed keeping in mind that Uttarakhand High court has banned the use of Whitener.

Thinner contains organic solvents (volatile organic compounds), unused correction fluid thickens over time as volatile solvents escape into the air. It can become too thick to use, and sometimes completely solidifies.

Thinner originally contained toluene, which was banned due to its toxicity. Later, it contained 1,1,1-trichloroethane, a skin irritant now widely banned under the Montreal Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer, and then the slightly safer trichloroethylene. Thinners currently used with correction fluid include bromopropane

Whiteners contain hydrocarbons which is deadly solvents that can infuse easily with the blood and can affect the central nervous system of a person.


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Q.91 With reference to the Ponzi schemes that has been recently in news, consider the following statements :

1. It is an investment fraud that falls under the purview of SEBI

2. Union government & co-operative banks are the enforcement agencies of these schemes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D

It is an investment fraud that do not falls under the purview of SEBI

State government is the enforcement agencies of these schemes

It is a fraudulent investment operation where the operator, an individual or organization, pays returns to its investors from new capital paid to the operators by new investors, rather than from profit earned through legitimate sources. Operators of Ponzi schemes usually entice new investors by offering higher returns than other investments, in the form of short-term returns that are either abnormally high or unusually consistent.
Ponzi schemes occasionally begin as legitimate businesses, until the business fails to achieve the returns expected. The business becomes a Ponzi scheme if it then continues under fraudulent terms. Whatever the initial situation, the perpetuation of the high returns requires an ever-increasing flow of money from new investors to sustain the scheme
Ponzi schemes sometimes commence operations as legitimate investment vehicles, such as hedge funds. For example, a hedge fund can degenerate into a Ponzi scheme if it unexpectedly loses money (or simply fails to legitimately earn the returns promised and/or thought to be expected) and if the promoters, instead of admitting their failure to meet expectations, fabricate false returns and (if necessary) produce fraudulent audit reports.
A pyramid scheme is a form of fraud similar in some ways to a Ponzi scheme, relying as it does on a mistaken belief in a nonexistent financial reality, including the hope of an extremely high rate of return. 


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Q.90 Recently Mitochondrial replacement therapy has been in news, consider the following statements :

1. It involves invitro & invivo fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria

2. Through this technique embryo remains free from all the defects

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1 

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D

It involves invitro fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria

2nd statement is fabricated statement, as it can’t be free from all the defects

Mitochondrial replacement (MRT, sometimes called mitochondrial donation) is a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which the future baby's mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party. This technique is used in cases when mothers carry genes for mitochondrial diseases. The two most common techniques in mitochondrial donation are pronuclear transfer and maternal spindle transfer.
In 2015 MRT was made legal in the United Kingdom and in 2016 the first regulations were issued there, clearing the way for procedures to begin. In February 2016, the US National Academy of Sciences issued a report describing technologies then current and the surrounding ethical issues


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Q.89 Which among the following countries comprises CLMV countries ?

1. Cambodia

2. Laos

3. Malaysia 

4.Vietnam 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,2,4

B) Only 1 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) All are correct

Ans. A
Cambodia,Laos,Myanmar ,Vietnam are the CLMV Countries. “India’s trade with the CLMV countries is over 11,000 million USD and there is immense potential.” The tri-lateral highway, connectivity in the North East, port connectivity improvement and the Act East policy are moves in that direction. The External Affairs study proves that there’s a huge potential of about 100billion USD dollars of additional export. The trade investment between India and the ASEAN countries is crucial since the CLMV countries cover 32% of the ASEAN region and has a huge market for Indian products and with a 165 million strong population. This will attract considerable amount of FDI from India. It has an open investment regime and does not discriminate between foreign and local investors. It is investing heavily into its transport infrastructure.” The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional organisation comprising ten Southeast Asian states which promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic integration amongst its members. Since its formation on August 8, 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, the organisation's membership has expanded to include Brunei, Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (Burma), and Vietnam. Its principal aims include accelerating economic growth, social progress, and sociocultural evolution among its members, alongside the protection of regional stability and the provision of a mechanism for member countries to resolve differences peacefully ASEAN PLUS THREE : The leaders of each country felt the need to further integrate the nations in the region. Beginning in 1997, the bloc started creating organisations with the intention of achieving this goal. "ASEAN Plus Three" was the first of these and was created to improve existing ties with the People's Republic of China, Japan, and South Korea. This was followed by the even larger East Asia Summit (EAS), which included ASEAN Plus Three countries as well as India, Australia, New Zealand, the United States, and Russia. ASEAN PLUS SIX : Asean became Asean Plus Six with additional countries: Australia, New Zealand and India. And nowadays, there are a new free trade area and it is called as Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), based on 16 countries of ASEAN plus six. RCEP allows the member to protect local sectors and gives more times to comply the aim for developed country members
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Q.88 Which among the following are the member countries of SAARC ?

1.Bangladesh

2.India

3.Maldives

4.Afghanistan 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4

B) Only 1 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) All are correct

Ans. D
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of nations in South Asia. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC comprises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 3.8% (US$ 2.9 trillion) of the global economy, as of 2015. SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8th December,1985. Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal. The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration.It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006. SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the United Nations as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the European Union. SAARC has six Apex Bodies , they are- • SAARC Chamber of Commerce & Industry (SCCI), • South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARCLAW), • South Asian Federation of Accountants (SAFA), • South Asia Foundation (SAF), • South Asia Initiative to End Violence Against Children (SAIEVAC), • Foundation of SAARC Writers and Literature (FOSWAL) Hemant Batra is the current Secretary General of SAARC. SAARC also has about 17 recognised bodies The Twelfth Summit approved the SAARC Award to support individuals and organisations within the region. The main aims of the SAARC Award are: • To encourage individuals and organisations based in South Asia to undertake programmes and activities that complement the efforts of SAARC • To encourage individuals and organisations in South Asia contributing to bettering the conditions of women and children • To honour outstanding contributions and achievements of individuals and organisations within the region in the fields of peace, development, poverty alleviation, environment protection and regional cooperation • To honour any other contributions and achievement not covered above of individuals and organisations in the region. The SAARC Award consists of a gold medal, a letter of citation, and cash prize of US $25,000 (₹15 lakhs). Since the institution of the SAARC Award in 2004, it has been awarded only once and the Award was posthumously conferred upon the late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh Member countries : Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan Observer countries: Australia, China, European Union, Japan, Iran, Mauritius, Myanmar, South Korea, and United States.
Q.87 Consider the following:

1. Fringe Benefit Tax

2. Interest Tax

3. Securities Transaction Tax

Which of the above is/ are Direct Tax/Taxes? 

A)1 only     

B) 1 and 3 only 

C) 2 and 3 only 

D) 1, 2 and 3 

Ans. D
Fringe Benefit Tax: The fringe benefits tax (FBT) was the tax applied to most, although not all, fringe benefits in India. A new tax was imposed on employers by India's Finance Act 2005 was introduced for the financial year commencing April 1, 2005. The fringe benefit tax was temporarily suspended in the 2009 Union budget of India by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The following items were covered: • Employer's expenses on entertainment, travel, employee welfare and accommodation. The definition of fringe benefits that have become taxable has been significantly extended. The law provides an exact list of taxable items. • Employer's provision of employee transportation to work or a cash allowances for this purpose. • Employer's contributions to an approved retirement plan (called a superannuation fund). • Employee stock option plans (ESOPs) have also been brought under fringe benefits tax from the fiscal year 2007–08. Minimum Support Price : Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper production years. The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price. In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and other non-price measures, the Commission takes into account, apart from a comprehensive view of the entire structure of the economy of a particular commodity or group of commodities, the following factors:- • Cost of production • Changes in input prices • Input-output price parity • Trends in market prices • Demand and supply • Inter-crop price parity • Effect on industrial cost structure • Effect on cost of living • Effect on general price level • International price situation • Parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers. • Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy The Commission makes use of both micro-level data and aggregates at the level of district, state and the country. The information/data used by the Commission, inter-alia include the following :- • Cost of cultivation per hectare and structure of costs in various regions of the country and changes there in; • Cost of production per quintal in various regions of the country and changes therein; • Prices of various inputs and changes therein; • Market prices of products and changes therein; • Prices of commodities sold by the farmers and of those purchased by them and changes therein; • Supply related information - area, yield and production, imports, exports and domestic availability and stocks with the Government/public agencies or industry; • Demand related information - total and per capita consumption, trends and capacity of the processing industry; • Prices in the international market and changes therein, demand and supply situation in the world market; • Prices of the derivatives of the farm products such as sugar, jaggery, jute goods, edible/non-edible oils and cotton yarn and changes therein; • Cost of processing of agricultural products and changes therein; • Cost of marketing - storage, transportation, processing, marketing services, taxes/fees and margins retained by market functionaries; and • Macro-economic variables such as general level of prices, consumer price indices and those reflecting monetary and fiscal factors.
Q.86 The main programme of the Red Shirts organised by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was:

A) To proceed on the lines of terrorist & revolutionary activities

B) To proopagate the Congress programme

C) To resist the military operations of the govt in the north-western fronteir portion

D) To setup an para-military organization

Ans. B
The Civil Disobedience Movement led by M K Gandhi, in the year 1930 was an important milestone in the history of Indian Nationalism. The prevalent political and social circumstances played a vital role in the launching of the Civil Disobedience Movement. The Simon Commission was formed by the British Government that included solely the members of the British Parliament, in November 1927, to draft and formalize a constitution for India. The chairmanship of the commission rested with Sir John Simon, who was a well known lawyer and an English statesman. Accused of being an 'All-White Commission', the Simon Commission was rejected by all political and social segments of the country. In Bengal, the opposition to the Simon Commission assumed a massive scale, with a hartal being observed in all corners of the province on February 3rd, 1928. On the occasion of Simon's arrival in the city, demonstrations were conducted in Calcutta. In the wake of the boycott of the recommendations proposed by Simon Commission, an All-Party Conference was organized in Bombay in May of 1928. Dr MA Ansari was the president of the conference. Motilal Nehru was given the responsibility to preside over the drafting committee, appointed at the conference to prepare a constitution for India. MK Gandhi was urged by the Congress to render his much needed leadership to the Civil Disobedience Movement. On the historic day of 12th March 1930, Gandhi inaugurated The Civil Disobedience Movement by conducting the historic Dandi Salt March, where he broke the Salt Laws imposed by the British Government. The two main clauses of the Gandhi-Irwin pact entailed : Congress participation in the Round Table Conference and cessation of The Civil Disobedience Movement.
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Q.85 In which among the following countries Zika virus was prevalent ?

1. Colombia

2. Equador 

3. El Salvador 

4. Jamaica

Which among the above are correct ?

A) 1,3,4

B) 2,3,4

C) 1,2,3

D) 1,2,3,4

Ans.D

Zika virus is not contagious but it is mainly transmitted by daytime-active Aedes aegypti mosquitoes after it bites someone infected with the virus and transmit it by biting another human.


FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.84 Who considered Sanchi to be a centre of tree and serpent worship ?

A) James Fergusson

B) James Princep

C) Marshman

D) Cunningham

Ans. A


FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.83 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 

1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 

2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 

3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 

4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4 

B) 2,3,4 

C) 1,2,3 

D)1,2,3,4 

Ans. C 

Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers


FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.82 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 

1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 

2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 

3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 

4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 

5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1,3,4,5

B) 2,3,4,5

C) 1,2,3,4 

D) 1,2,3,4,5 

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in

Q.81 With reference to Kathakali, consider the following statements : 

1) Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali 

2) Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved 

3) It is characterized by facial expressions , movement of eye balls & lower eye lids 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3 

B) 2 & 3 

C) 1 & 2 

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D 
Introduction Kathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally means "Story-Play". It is known for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for Kerala. The themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature. They typically deal with the Mahabarat, the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as the Puranas. This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised Malayalam. A Kathakali performance is a major social event. They generally start at dusk and go through out the night. Kathakali is usually performed only by men. Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women's costume. However, in recent years, women have started to become Kathakali dancers. Kathakali has a long tradition. It dates back to the 17th century. It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon, who was the founder of the Kerala Kala Mandalam. The actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story. These hand gestures, known as mudra, are common through out much of classical Indian dance. Costume The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali. The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy. There are several kinds of costume. There are: Sathwika (the hero), Kathi (the villain), Minukku (females), and Thatti. These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known to Malayali (Keralite) audiences. Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costume. The makeup is very elaborate. It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense. The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available. The white is made from rice flour, the red is made from Vermilion (a red earth such as cinnabar). The black is made from soot. The colours are not merely decoration, but are also a means of portraying characters. For instance, red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intent. Music The music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music (Carnatic sangeet); however the instrumentation is decidedly different. Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda, idakka, and shuddha madalam.

FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in

Q.80 In context with the Western Indian School consider the following statements : 

1) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism 

2) Exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School 

3) Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of art 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3 

B) 2 & 3 

C) 1 & 2 

D) 1,2,3 

Ans. D
The Western Indian style of painting prevailed in the region comprising Gujarat, Rajasthan and Malwa. The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts. Jainism was patronised by the Kings of the Chalukya Dynasty who ruled Gujarat and parts of Rajasthan and Malwa from 961 A.D. to the end of the 13th century. An enormous number of Jain religious manuscripts were commissioned from 12th to 16th centuries by the princes, their ministers and the rich Jain merchants for earning religious merit. Many such manuscripts are available in the Jain libraries (bhandaras) which are found at many places in Western India.

FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.79 What was Mahanavami Dibba with reference to the ancient period ?

A) Audience hall

B) Hospital where soldiers were treated

C) Residence of the Bhikshus

D) Place where Buddhist monks were assembled

Ans. A
The entire complex is surrounded by high double walls with a street running between them. The audience hall is a high platform with slots for wooden pillars at close and regular intervals. It had a staircase going up to the second floor, which rested on these pillars. The pillars being closely spaced, would have left little free space and thus it is not clear what the hall was used for.

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Q.78 Recently India has hosted Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR), consider the following statements :

1. It is a biennial conference jointly organized by all Asian countries

2. It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk

3. ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ has been adopted in this conference

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only2

B) 1 & 3

C) Only 1

D) 2 & 3

Ans. D
India is hosting the 2016 Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR) from November 3 to 5, 2016 in New Delhi. This will be second time India hosting AMCDRR. The conference will be hosted by Union Government in collaboration with the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR). Key Facts It will be first AMCDRR after advent of Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRRR) which was adopted at 3rd UN World Conference in Sendai, Japan in March, 2015. India by hosting AMCDRR re-affirms its commitment to the cause of Disaster Risk Reduction. It will also set the direction of Sendai Framework implementation in the region. The aim of the conference is to transform the commitments of governments and stakeholders during the Sendai Conference into national and local action. AMCDRR 2016 will focus on consultation, collaboration and partnership with governments and stakeholders to mainstream Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) in the region. It will adopt the ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ endorsed by the Asian countries. In this conference, senior-level delegations from Asian countries, representatives of UN bodies and Disaster Management experts will participate. Background AMCDRR is a biennial conference jointly organized by different Asian countries and the UNISDR. It was established in 2005. So far, 6 AMCDRR conferences have been organised. For the first time India had also hosted the second AMCDRR in 2007 in New Delhi. About Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-30 It is an international Treaty that was approved by UN member states in March 2015 at the Third World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held in Sendai, Japan. It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk. It has framework for 15-year i.e. 2015 to 2020. It also calls for sharing the responsibility with other stakeholders including local government, the private sector and other stakeholders. It is successor of the Hyogo Framework for Action (2005–2015), which had been the most encompassing international accord on disaster risk reduction. It sets of common standards, a comprehensive framework with achievable targets, and a legally-based instrument for disaster risk reduction. It calls for adopting integrated and inclusive institutional measures for preventing vulnerability to disaster, increase preparedness for response and recovery and strengthen resilience. Four specific priorities of Sendai Framework: (i) Understanding disaster risk (ii) Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk (iii) Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience (iv) Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and recovery, reconstruction and rehabilitation.

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Q.77 Which among the following are the conventions of the recently ratified Paris agreement ?

1. Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels

2. On the path of Kyoto Protocol it provides a specific division between developed and developing nations

3.  Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. A
The Paris Agreement is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) dealing with greenhouse gases emissions mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the year 2020. It was opened for signature on 22 April 2016 (Earth Day) at a ceremony in New York. As of December 2016, 194 UNFCCC members have signed the treaty, 120 of which have ratified it. After several European Union states ratified the agreement in October 2016, there were enough countries that had ratified the agreement that produce enough of the world's greenhouse gases for the agreement to enter into force. The agreement went into effect on 4 November 2016. The aim of the convention is described in Article 2, "enhancing the implementation" of the UNFCCC through: "(a) Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, recognizing that this would significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change; (b) Increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions development, in a manner that does not threaten food production; (c) Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development." Difference between Paris agreement & Kyoto Protocol : Kyoto Protocol differentiated between Annex-1 and non-Annex-1 countries, this bifurcation is blurred in the Paris Agreement, as all parties will be required to submit emissions reductions plans. While the Paris Agreement still emphasizes the principle of "Common but Differentiated Responsibility"—the acknowledgement that different nations have different capacities and duties to climate action—it does not provide a specific division between developed and developing nations. The Paris Agreement is open for signature by States and regional economic integration organizations that are Parties to the UNFCCC (the Convention) from 22 April 2016 to 21 April 2017 at the UN Headquarters in New York.

FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.76 With reference to the architectural styles, consider the following statements :

1. Neo-Gothic, characterised by high-pitched roofs, pointed arches and detailed decoration

2. Gothic style had its roots in buildings, especially churches, built in northern Europe during the medieval period.

3. neo-Gothic style was revived in the mid-nineteenth century in England. & was adapted for
Bombay

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) Only 2

Ans. C

The most spectacular example of the neo-Gothic style is the Victoria Terminus, the station and headquarters of the Great Indian Peninsular Railway Company


FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 8th

Q.75 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly marched ?

1. Mobato : Village headman

2. Pykars : Travelling traders

3. Chapkan : Long button coat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 1 & 3

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D


Q.74 Which one of the following is not identified by Central Pollution Control Board as heavily polluting industry?

A) Pulp and paper

B) Sugar

C) Tea

D) Fertilizer

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th

Q.73 With reference to the Guru Nanak, consider the following statements ?

1. He  advocated a form of nirguna bhakti

2. Sacrifices, ritual baths, image worship, austerities and the scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims were rejected by Guru Nanak

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in

Q.72 With reference to the Odissi dance, consider the following statements : 

1) Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style. 

2) Lower half of the body remaining static, the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body 

3) There are certain foot positions with flat, toe or heel contact 

4) In addition to the leg movement, there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettes 

Which among the above statements are correctly matched ? 

A) 1,3,4

B) 2,3,4 

C) 1,2,3 

D) 1,2,3,4 

Ans. D
Odissi is considered a dance of love, joy and intense passion, pure, divine and human. Over a period of time three schools of Odissi dance developed, they are- Mahari, Nartaki, and Gotipau. The Mahari system traces its roots in the Devadasi tradition. The dance form of Odissi that developed in royal courts is called the Nartaki tradition. In the Gotipau tradition of Odissi dance young boys dress up in female attires and enact female roles. Before the 17th century Odissi dance was held in great esteem due to patronage and support of local rulers and nobles. During this period even the royalty was expected to be accomplished dancers. However, the scenario changed after the 17th century. The dancing girls were thought of as prostitutes and from here the social position of dancers began to decline. During the colonial period too the position of Odissi dance suffered due to anti-nautch attitude of the British. With India gaining independence there began great efforts to revive the classical Indian dances. The government came to realize the role of cultural heritage in creating a national identity. A number of people and experts took initiatives for the reconstruction and popularization of Odissi dance. Some of the notable are Guru Deba Prasad Das, Guru Mayadhar Raut, Guru Pankaj Charan Das, Guru Mahadev Rout, Guru Raghu Dutta and Guru Kelu Charan Mahapatra. One of the most distinguishing features of Odissi dance is the Tribhangi. The notion of Tribhang divides the body into three parts, head, bust and torso. The postures dealing with these three elements are called Tribhangi. This concept has created the very characteristic poses which are more twisted than found in other classical Indian dances. Mudra is also an important component of Odissi dance. The term Mudra means "stamp" and is a hand position which suggests things. Odissi themes are almost religious in nature and mostly revolve around Krishna.
Q.71 Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?

1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid

2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B


Q.70 Consider the following statements :

1. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution

2. Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of six years

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. A

Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of five years.


FRAMED FROM HISTORY NEW NCERT CLASS 12th

Q.69 With reference to the ancient period, who was/were dubashes ?

1. Dubashes were Indians who could speak two languages – the local language and English

2. They worked as agents and merchants, acting as intermediaries between Indian society and the 
British.

Which among the above statements is/are correct ?

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA & THE HINDU 

Q.68 With reference to the Organ transplantation, consider the following statements ;

1. Domino transplant allows all organ recipients to get a transplant even if their living donor is not a match to them

2. Organ donation  is possible even after brain & cardiac death 

3. In organ transplantation brain cannot be transplanted

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 2

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 1

D) All are correct

Ans. D
Organ transplantation is the moving of an organ from one body to another or from a donor site to another location on the person's own body, to replace the recipient's damaged or absent organ. Organs and/or tissues that are transplanted within the same person's body are called autografts. Transplants that are recently performed between two subjects of the same species are called allografts. Allografts can either be from a living or cadaveric source. Organs that can be transplanted are the heart, kidneys, liver, lungs, pancreas, intestine, and thymus. Some organs, like the brain, cannot be transplanted. Tissues include bones, tendons (both referred to as musculoskeletal grafts), cornea, skin, heart valves, nerves and veins. Worldwide, the kidneys are the most commonly transplanted organs, followed by the liver and then the heart. Cornea and musculoskeletal grafts are the most commonly transplanted tissues; these outnumber organ transplants by more than tenfold. Organ donors may be living, brain dead, or dead via circulatory death. Tissue may be recovered from donors who die of circulatory death, as well as of brain death – up to 24 hours past the cessation of heartbeat. Unlike organs, most tissues (with the exception of corneas) can be preserved and stored for up to five years, meaning they can be "banked". Transplantation raises a number of bioethical issues, including the definition of death, when and how consent should be given for an organ to be transplanted, and payment for organs for transplantation. Other ethical issues include transplantation tourism and more broadly the socio-economic context in which organ procurement or transplantation may occur. A particular problem is organ trafficking. Transplantation medicine is one of the most challenging and complex areas of modern medicine. Some of the key areas for medical management are the problems of transplant rejection, during which the body has an immune response to the transplanted organ, possibly leading to transplant failure and the need to immediately remove the organ from the recipient. When possible, transplant rejection can be reduced through serotyping to determine the most appropriate donor-recipient match and through the use of immunosuppressant drugs Autografts are the transplant of tissue to the same person. Sometimes this is done with surplus tissue, tissue that can regenerate, or tissues more desperately needed elsewhere (examples include skin grafts, vein extraction for CABG, etc.). Sometimes an autograft is done to remove the tissue and then treat it or the person before returning it (examples include stem cell autograft and storing blood in advance of surgery). In a rotationplasty, a distal joint is used to replace a more proximal one; typically a foot or ankle joint is used to replace a knee joint. The person's foot is severed and reversed, the knee removed, and the tibia joined with the femur.

FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA & THE HINDU 

Q.67 With reference to the Bioprinting, consider the following statements :

1. Creation of fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body , is one of the main approach of bioprinting.

2. Bio-ink is a material made from living as well as non-living cells in order to create a desired shape

3. Combination of both biomimicry and self-assembly approaches are known as mini tissues

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1 & 2

Ans. A

3D bioprinting is the process of creating cell patterns in a confined space using 3D printing technologies, where cell function and viability are preserved within the printed construct.Generally, 3D bioprinting utilizes the layer-by-layer method to create tissue-like structures that are later used in medical and tissue engineering fields.Bioprinting covers a broad range of materials. Currently, bioprinting can be used to print tissues and organs to help research drugs and pills. In addition, 3D bioprinting has begun to incorporate the printing of scaffolds. These scaffolds can be used to regenerate joints and ligaments. The first patent related to this technology was filed in the United States in 2003 and granted in 2006. 3D bioprinting for fabricating biological constructs typically involves dispensing cells onto a biocompatible scaffold using a successive layer-by-layer approach to generate tissue-like three-dimensional structures. *Artificial organs such as livers and kidneys made by 3D bioprinting have been shown to lack crucial elements that affect the body such as working blood vessels, tubules for collecting urine, and the growth of billions of cells required for these organs. Without these components the body has no way to get the essential nutrients and oxygen deep within their interiors The first approach of bioprinting is called biomimicry. The main goal of this approach is to create fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body This approach relies on the physical process of embryonic organ development then replicates the tissues by using this process as a model The third approach of bioprinting is a combination of both the biomimicry and self-assembly approaches, which is called mini tissues. Organs and tissues are built from very small functional components. Mini-tissue approach takes these small pieces and manufacture and arrange them into larger framework.This approach uses two different strategies. The first strategy is when self-assembling cell spheres are arranged into large scaled tissues by using natural designs as a guide. The second strategy is when designing precise, high quality, reproductions of a tissue and allowing them to self-assemble into large scaled functional tissue. The mixture of these strategies is required to print a complex three dimensional biological structure "Bio-ink is a material made from living cells that behaves much like a liquid, allowing people to "print" it in order to create a desired shape. To make bio-ink, scientists create a slurry of cells that can be loaded into a cartridge and inserted into a specially designed printer, along with another cartridge containing a gel known as bio-paper."Potential uses for bio-ink include creating sheets of skin for skin grafts and vascular tissues to replace veins and arteries. In bioprinting, there are three major types of printers that have been used. These are inkjet, laser-assisted, and extrusion printers. Inkjet printers are mainly used in bioprinting for fast and large-scale products. One type of inkjet printer, called drop-on-demand inkjet printer, prints materials in exact amounts, minimizing cost and waste.Printers that utilize lasers provide high-resolution printing; however, these printers are often expensive. Extrusion printers print cells layer-by-layer, just like 3D printing to create 3D constructs. In addition to just cells, extrusion printers may also use hydrogels infused with cells. In early 2015, 3-D printing techniques expanded to include materials such as graphene, a material possessing unique properties such as high levels of strength, rather than only plastics.

FRAMED FROM INVESTOPEDIA

Q.66 Recently Bulldog bonds are in news, with reference to these bonds consider the following statements :

1. These are purchased from the sterling bonds in order to earn revenue 

2. These bonds are similar to the Yankee bonds which can be sold to raise capital.

3. U.S. investors are restricted to purchase this bond as these are traded in United kingdom

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 2 & 3 

B) Only 3

C) 1 & 2

D) Only 1

Ans. C
A type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterling. A bulldog bond is traded in the United Kingdom. If the revenue is used to reduce debt also in British pounds, the exchange rate risk is decreased. These bonds are issued by non-British institutions that want to sell the bond in the United Kingdom. U.S. investors can also purchase this bond, but by doing so they take on the risk of the change in value of the sterling.

FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.65 Which among the following was/were the observations of Portuguese traveler Barbosa ? 1. Architecture of tombs & Mosques resembles of the mandapas found in the temples of Hampi 2. Houses of the people were thatched, but nonetheless well built and arranged according to occupations Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 7th Q.64 With reference to the Banjaras, what was Tanda ? A) Caravan B) Horse C) Raw material D) Food grain Ans. A These Banjaras carry their household – wives and children – along with them. One tanda consists of many families. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.63 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), consider the following statements : 1. It is an intergovernmental organization to promote adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy. 2. It was founded in 2009 3. India is one of the 33 Permanent members of IRENA. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans.D FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.62 During the Akbar court, what was akhbarat ? A) It contained all kinds of information such as attendance at the court, grant of offices and titles B) It is the recording of all the proceedings in the curt C) It is a room for all the private discussions with the officials D) None of the above Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.61 Consider the following statements regarding the features of the World Bank: 1. The Board of Governors is the Supreme body. 2. The voting power of the governor of a member country is related to the financial contribution of the country concerned. 3. It gives short-term loan to its members to correct their temporary balance of payments disequilibrium. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 only B) 1,2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 only D) 2 & 3 only Ans. C The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans to developing countries for capital programs. It comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA). The World Bank is a component of the World Bank Group, and a member of the United Nations Development Group. The World Bank's official goal is the reduction of poverty. According to its Articles of Agreement, all its decisions must be guided by a commitment to the promotion of foreign investment and international trade and to the facilitation of capital Investment. The World Bank is not to be confused with the United Nations World Bank Group, a member of the United Nations Economic and Social Council, and a family of five international organizations that make leveraged loans to poor countries: • International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) • International Development Association (IDA) • International Finance Corporation (IFC) • Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) • International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.60 With reference to the Central Board of Film Certification , consider the following statements : 1. It is a non- statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 2. Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Central Government recommended by Prime Minister of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D It is a statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Location : Mumbai Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Union Government Its function is to regulate the public exhibition of films in India under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 by granting them certificate under 4 categories. They are U: Unrestricted Public Exhibition. UA: Unrestricted Public Exhibition- but with a word of caution that Parental discretion required for children below 12 years. A: Restricted to adults. S: Restricted to any special class of persons. Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT) : Located in Delhi, It hears the appeals filed as per provisions of Cinematograph Act. Any applicant can file an appeal before the tribunal for a certificate in respect of a film who is aggrieved by an order of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC). FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.59 Which among the following are included in the African Union ? 1. Morocco 2. France 3. Portugal 4. United kingdom Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. B The African Union (AU) is a continental union consisting of 54 countries in Africa. The only African state that is not a member is Morocco, due to the status of the Western Sahara, although Burkina Faso and the Central African Republic have had their memberships suspended due to the recent coup d'état and ongoing civil war, respectively. The AU was established on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa and launched on 9 July 2002 in South Africa, with the aim of replacing the Organisation of African Unity(OAU). The objectives of the AU are: 1. To achieve greater unity and solidarity between the African countries and Africans. 2. To defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity and independence of its Member States. 3. To accelerate the political and social-economic integration of the continent. 4. To promote and defend African common positions on issues of interest to the continent and its peoples. 5. To encourage international cooperation, taking due account of the Charter of the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. 6. To promote peace, security, and stability on the continent. 7. To promote democratic principles and institutions, popular participation and good governance. 8. To promote and protect human and peoples' rights in accordance with the African Charter on Human and Peoples' Rightsand other relevant human rights instruments. 9. To establish the necessary conditions which enable the continent to play its rightful role in the global economy and in international negotiations. 10. To promote sustainable development at the economic, social and cultural levels as well as the integration of African economies. 11. To promote co-operation in all fields of human activity to raise the living standards of African peoples. 12. To coordinate and harmonize the policies between the existing and future Regional Economic Communities for the gradual attainment of the objectives of the Union. 13. To advance the development of the continent by promoting research in all fields, in particular in science and technology. 14. To work with relevant international partners in the eradication of preventable diseases and the promotion of good health on the continent. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.58 With reference to the International Monetary Fund, consider the following statements : 1. India’s voting right in IMF has been increased from 2.3 to 2.6 % 2. Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has been increased Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has been decreased. China will have the 3rd largest IMF quota and voting share after the US and Japan. While, India, Russia and Brazil will also be among the top 10 members of the IMF. Currently, US, Japan, France, Germany, Italy, United Kingdom, Canada and Saudi Arabia are among the top ten members of the IMF. While, the member countries with the 5 largest quotas appoint an Executive Director. FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT Q.57 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the following statements : 1. It is semi judicial in nature 2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha 3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends appropriate action Which among the above are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. A The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.56 Which of the following is a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime ? A) India B) China C) USA D) Luxembourg Ans. B *The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. *It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km. *The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) established in April 1987 by the G7 countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Great Britain, and the United States of America. *The People's Republic of China is not a member of the MTCR but has agreed to abide by the original 1987 Guidelines and Annex, but not the subsequent revisions. *Israel, Romania and Slovakia have also agreed to voluntarily follow MTCR export rules even though not yet members. *In 2002, the MTCR was supplemented by the International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (ICOC), also known as the Hague Code of Conduct, which calls for restraint and care in the proliferation of ballistic missile systems capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction, and has 119 members, thus working parallel to the MTCR with less specific restrictions but with a greater membership. *India formally applied for membership to the group in June 2015, with active support from France and the United States, and officially became a member on 27 June 2016 with the consensus of the 34 member nations. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.55 Under IUCN category , Dhole is classified as : A) Endangered B) Extinct C) Vulnerable D) None of the above Ans. A The dhole is a canid native to Central, South and Southeast Asia. Other English names for the species include Asiatic wild dog, Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red wolf, red dog, and mountain wolf FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT Q.54 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the following statements : 1. It is semi judicial in nature 2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha 3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends appropriate action Which among the above are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. A The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.53 Which among the following were the observations of Ibn Batuta ? 1. Two kinds of plant i.e. Coconut & Palm were completely unfamiliar to his audience 2. Ibn Battuta found cities in the subcontinent full of exciting opportunities 3. Most cities had crowded streets and bright and colourful markets that were stacked with a wide variety of goods 4. Most bazaars had a mosque and a temple, and in some of them at least, spaces were marked for public performances by dancers, musicians and singers Which among the above is/are correct ? A) Only 3 B) 1,3,4 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Ibn Battuta found Indian agriculture very productive because of the fertility of the soil, which allowed farmers to cultivate two crops a year. He also noted that the subcontinent was well integrated with inter-Asian networks of trade and commerce, with Indian manufactures being in great demand in both West Asia and Southeast Asia, fetching huge profits for artisans and merchants. Indian textiles, particularly cotton cloth, fine muslins, silks, brocade and satin, were in great demand. Ibn Battuta informs us that certain varieties of fine muslin were so expensive that they could be worn only by the nobles and the very rich. Almost all trade routes were well supplied with inns and guest houses. The postal system was so efficient that while it took fifty days to reach Delhi from Sind, the news reports of spies would reach the Sultan through the postal system in just five days. Uluq was known as Horse post. Foot post has three stations per mile i.e. called as dawa . FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.52 With reference to the Mughal court, What was Kornish ? A) It was a form of ceremonial salutation B) It was old residential city of Delhi C) It is a dance performed by men & women in a court D) None of the above Ans. A Kornish was a form of ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand against his forehead and bent his head. It suggested that the subject placed his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility, presenting it to the royal assembly. Chahar taslim is a mode of salutation which begins with placing the back of the right hand on the ground, and raising it gently till the person stands erect, when he puts the palm of his hand upon the crown of his head. It is done four (chahar) times. Taslim literally means submission. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.51 With reference to the ancient period, consider the following : 1. Moors - Muslim Merchants 2. Devadasis - Temple dancers 3. Hundi - Note recording a deposit Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.50 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Hatta - Market Streets 2. Manigramam and Nanadesi - Taxes 3. Kaikkolars - Weavers Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Manigramam and Nanadesi- There were several such guilds in south India from the eighth. Weavers such as the Saliyar or Kaikkolars. FROM UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q.49 Consider the following : 1) Acesulfame potassium 2) Polyethylene glycol 3) Saccharin 4) Sucralose Which of the above are used as sugar substitutes in foods? A) 1 & 2 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.48 Which of the following is not an ASEAN member ? A) Cambodia B) China C) Laos D) Vietnam Ans. B The Association of South East Asian Nations (Asean) is a 10-member international body that represents more than 500 million people living in the region. Set up in 1967 in Bangkok by Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines and Singapore, it has since been joined by Brunei, Laos, Vietnam, Myanmar and Cambodia. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was formed in 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand to promote political and economic cooperation and regional stability. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.47 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency , consider the following statements : 1. It is the governing body which is responsible for implementing various decisions of assembly 2. India is the founding member of IRENA Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.46 Union Information and Broadcasting Minister launched Vivid Bharti Service. With reference to the Vivid Bharti consider the following statements : 1. It is available on below 100 Megahertz (MHz) frequency 2. It is a service of All India Radio (AIR) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B It is available on below 102.8 Megahertz (MHz) frequency FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.45 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ? 1. China 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Kazakhstan 4. Russia 5. Tajikistan 6. Uzbekistan Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ? A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4,5,6 C) 1,2,3,5,6 D) All are correct Ans. D Since 2005, India was having an Observer status of SCO and had applied for full membership in 2014. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.44 Which among the following have the observer status in shanghai Cooperation ? 1. Mongolia 2. Iran 3. Pakistan 4. India Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 4 D) All are correct Ans. D It was established in 2001 & it comprises China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan FRAMED FROM NCERT CIVICS Q.43 Consider the following statements regarding ‘zero hour’ in the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha 1. This term does not find any mention in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Constitution of India 2. A number of members raise their matters of urgent public importance at 12:00 noon in the House which has been termed as zero hour 3. Proceedings of zero hour are not recorded in the House 4. A written reply is given to the member by a concerned Minister for the matter raised during zero hour Select the correct answer from the code given below: A) 1 & 2 B) 3 & 4 C) 2 only D) 1 & 4 Ans.A Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions. Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.42 Who among the following are the members of SAARC ? 1. Bhutan 2. Bangladesh 3. Myanmar 4. Pakistan 5. Sri Lanka Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1,2,4,5 B) 1 & 5 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. A The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is regional intergovernmental organization and geopoliticalunion in South Asia. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC compromises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 9.12% of the global economy, as of 2015. SAARC was founded in Dhaka in 1985. Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu. The organization promotes development economics and regional integration. It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006. SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the UN as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the EU. However, the organization continues to face many challenges. Disputes between nuclear rivals India and Pakistan have often clouded the union's potential and progress. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.41 Who among the following are the members of the Washington Accord ? 1. India 2. China 3. Malaysia 4. South Africa Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) Only 1 & 2 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D * The Washington Accord is an international accreditation agreement for professional engineering academic degrees, between the bodies responsible for accreditation in its signatory countries. *The Washington Accord covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. *Engineering technology and postgraduate programs are not covered by the accord, although some engineering technology programs are covered under the Sydney Accord and the Dublin Accord. *Only qualifications awarded after the signatory country or region became part of the Washington Accord are recognized. *The accord is not directly responsible for the licensing of Professional Engineers and the registration of Chartered Engineers, but it does cover the academic requirements that are part of the licensing processes in signatory countries. *India became the permanent member of the Washington Accord *It is an esteemed international treaty on engineering studies and mobility of engineers across signatory countries including the US, the UK and Australia signatories are: Australia, Canada, Chinese Taipei, Hong Kong China, India, Ireland, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Russia, Singapore, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States. *The treaty covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. The accord doesn’t take into account engineering technology and postgraduate programs. QUESTION LIFTED FROM PRATIYOGITA DARPAN Q.40 Which of the following is a Decentralised Autonomous Organisation ? A) Venture Capital fund B) Trade association C) Market regulator D) Financial regulator Ans. A *It is an organization that is run through rules encoded as computer programs called smart contracts. *A DAO's financial transaction record and program rules are maintained on a blockchain. *There are several examples of this business model. The precise legal status of this type of business organization is unclear. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.39 In context with the The Saint Helena Act 1833 or The Government of India Act 1833 , consider the following statements: 1) It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. 2) It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body 3) It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servants. Select the correct statement(s) from the given codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D As this Act was also meant for an extension of the royal charter granted to the company it is also called the Charter Act of 1833. Even this extended the charter by 20 years. It contained the following provisions: • It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. • It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General was given exclusive legislative powers for the whole of British India. • It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body. In particular, the Company lost its monopoly on trade with China and other parts of the Far East. • It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servants. However this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors who continued to hold the privilege of appointing Company officials. • The island of Saint Helena was vested in His Majesty. FRAMED FROM Indian History-Mansi Publications Q.38 What constituted the crux of the Drain theory highlighted by the Dada Bhai Naoroji ? A) Abuse of trade practices by the merchants of the ruling race B) Ill-gotten money taken from the princely rulers & remitted to England C) Unrequited exports from India D) Gluttish from Indian markets with british manufactured goods Ans. C *Dadabhai Naoroji's work focused on the drain of wealth from India into England through colonial rule. *One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of India, and by extension, the effect that colonisation has on the country. *Through his work with economics, Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was draining money out of India. *Naoroji described 6 factors which resulted in the external drain. -Firstly, India is governed by a foreign government. -Secondly, India does not attract immigrants which bring labour and capital for economic growth. -Thirdly, India pays for Britain's civil administrations and occupational army. -Fourthly, India bears the burden of empire building in and out of its borders. -Fifthly, opening the country to free trade was actually a way to exploit India by offering highly paid jobs to foreign personnel. -Lastly, the principal income-earners would buy outside of India or leave with the money as they were mostly foreign personnel. *In Naoroji's book 'Poverty' he estimated a 200–300 million pounds loss of revenue to Britain that is not returned. *Naoroji described this as vampirism, with money being a metaphor for blood, which humanised India and attempted to show Britain's actions as monstrous in an attempt to garner sympathy for the nationalist movement. *When referring to the Drain, Naoroji stated that he believed some tribute was necessary as payment for the services that England brought to India such as the railways. However the money from these services were being drained out of India; for instance the money being earned by the railways did not belong to India, which supported his assessment that India was giving too much to Britain. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.37 Who among the following are the members of the Indian Ocean Rim Association ? 1. India 2. Australia 3. Indonesia 4. Malaysia Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D The objectives of IORA are as follows : 1. To promote sustainable growth and balanced development of the region and member states 2. To focus on those areas of economic cooperation which provide maximum opportunities for development, shared interest and mutual benefits 3. To promote liberalisation, remove impediments and lower barriers towards a freer and enhanced flow of goods, services, investment, and technology within the Indian Ocean rim. FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE Q36 With reference to the Mohiniyatam dance, consider the following statements : 1. It involves the swaying of broad hips and the gentle movements of erect posture from side to side. 2. The dance follows the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika, which has elaborate description of expressions by the hand palm and fingers 3. It is performed to this accompaniment by the subtle gestures and footwork of the danseuse 4. It involves the eyes in a very coy, sensual manner to enchant the mind without enticing the senses. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.35 With reference to the Imperial Officials of Mughal court , consider the following : 1. Diwan-i-ala - Finance minister 2. Tainat-i-Rakab - Court 3. sadr-us sudur - Minsiter of grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.34 Which among the following are the duties of the additional solicitor general ? 1. Represents the Union Government in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Advisory Jurisdiction) of the Constitution 2. Appear whenever required in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the Union Government 3. Discharge other functions that are conferred on a Law Officer by the Constitution or any other Law for the time being in force. Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.33 Biopiracy describes a practice in which indigenous knowledge of nature, originating with indigenous peoples, is used by others for profit, without permission. Which among the following comes under the Biopiracy ? 1. Rosy periwinkle 2. Neem tree 3. Basmati rice 4. Enola bean Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.32 With reference to the Burials of Harappan culture , consider the following statements : 1. At burials in Harappan sites the dead were generally laid in pits & the hollowed-out spaces were lined with bricks 2. Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women 3. Ornament consisting of three shell rings, a jasper (a kind of semi-precious stone) bead and hundreds of micro beads was found near the skull of men Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Extra important point : Faience (a material made of ground sand or silica mixed with colour and a gum and then fired) Materials used to make beads is remarkable: stones like carnelian (of a beautiful red colour), jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite; metals like copper, bronze and gold; and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay. FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA Q.31 Which among the following is the oldest international financial institution ? 1. Bank for International Settlement 2. International Monetary Fund 3. International Bank for Reconstruction & Development 4. International Trade Organisation Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1,3,4 D) Only 3 Ans. B

*International financial institution (IFI) is a financial institution that has been established by more than one country, and hence are subjects of international law. *Its owners or shareholders are generally national governments, although other international institutions and other organizations occasionally figure as shareholders. *The most prominent IFIs are creations of multiple nations, although some bilateral financial institutions (created by two countries) exist and are technically IFIs. The best known IFIs were established after World War II to assist in the reconstruction of Europe and provide mechanisms for international cooperation in managing the global financial system. *Today, the world's largest IFI is the European Investment Bank *A multilateral development bank (MDB) is an institution, created by a group of countries, that provides financing and professional advising for the purpose of development. * MDBs have large memberships including both developed donor countries and developing borrower countries. * MDBs finance projects in the form of long-term loans at market rates, very-long-term loans below market rates, and through grants. *There are also several "sub-regional" multilateral development banks. *Their membership typically includes only borrowing nations. The banks lend to their members, borrowing from the international capital markets. -These banks include: • Caribbean Development Bank (CDB) • Central American Bank for Economic Integration (CABEI) • East African Development Bank (EADB) • West African Development Bank (BOAD) • Black Sea Trade and Development Bank (BSTDB) • Economic Cooperation Organization Trade and Development Bank (ETDB) • Eurasian Development Bank (EDB) • New Development Bank (NDB) (formerly BRICS Development Bank) Regional Development Banks : *The regional development banks consist of several regional institutions that have functions similar to the World Bank group's activities, but with particular focus on a specific region. *Shareholders usually consist of the regional countries plus the major donor countries. *The best-known of these regional banks cover regions that roughly correspond to United Nations regional groupings, including : - the Inter-American Development Bank, -the Asian Development Bank; -the African Development Bank; -the Central American Bank for Economic Integration; -the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development. *The Islamic Development Bank is among the leading multilateral development banks. *IsDB is the only multilateral development bank after the World Bank that is global in terms of its membership. 56 member countries of IsDB are spread over Asia, Africa, Europe and Latin America.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORY

Q.30 With reference to the ancient period, who were Chandalas ?

A) Brahmanical community

B) Untouchables

C) Weavers

D) Farmers cultivating the fields

Ans. B


FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORY

Q.29 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following are correctly matched ?

1. jins-i kamil	-	perfect crops

2. muqaddam	-	Village headman

3. Majur	-	Labourers

4. Halalkhoran	-	Scavangers

5. Milkiyat -	-	Property

Which among the above is/are correct ?

A) 1 & 3

B) 2,3,5

C) 1,2,3,4

D) All are correct

Ans. A


FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA

Q.28 Consider the following statements :

1. Goldilocks Zone refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system with temporal variablity in rainfall

2. Exoplanet is a planet that orbits the Sun & also termed as extrostar planet

Which among the above is/are correct ?

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D

Exoplanet: It is a planet that does not orbit the Sun and instead orbits a different star, stellar remnant, or brown dwarf. It is also termed as extrasolar planet. 

Goldilocks zone: It refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system where the temperature is neither too high nor too low. Such conditions could allow for the presence on the planet’s surface of liquid water – a key ingredient for life.


FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.27 Which of the following are the mammals ?

1) Sea lion

2) Red Panda

3) Roe Deer

Codes:

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

The red panda (Ailurus fulgens), also called lesser panda and red cat-bear, is a small arboreal mammal native to the eastern Himalayas and southwestern China that has been classified as vulnerable by IUCN as its wild population is estimated at less than 10,000 mature individuals. The population continues to decline and is threatened by habitat loss and fragmentation, poaching, and inbreeding depression, although red pandas are protected by national laws in their range countries. 

The red panda is slightly larger than a domestic cat. It has reddish-brown fur, a long, shaggy tail, and a waddling gait due to its shorter front legs. It feeds mainly on bamboo, but is omnivorous and also eats eggs, birds, insects, and small mammals. It is a solitary animal, mainly active from dusk to dawn, and is largely sedentary during the day.


FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.26 Under the classification of IUCN Red Panda are classified as :

A) Extinct

B) Threatened

C) Vulnerable

D) Endangered

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA

Q.25 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation ?

1. China

2. Russia

3. Kazakhstan

4. Kyrgyzstan

5. Tajikistan

6. India 

7.Pakistan

Select the correct answer from the given codes :

A) 1,3,4,5

B) 2,3,4,5,6,7

C) 1,2,4,5,6,7

D) All are correct

Ans. D

Observers: Afghanistan, Iran, Mongolia and Belarus.


FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA

Q.24 Who among the following are the founding members of the Ashgabat agreement ?

1. Uzbekistan

2. Iran

3. Turkmenistan

4. Oman

5. Kazakhstan 

Select the correct answer from the given codes :

A) 1,3,4,5

B) 2,3,4,5

C) Only 1,3 & 5

D) All are correct

Ans. D

It is a transit agreement established in year 2011.

It establishes international transport and transit corridor between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf countries.


FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.23 With reference to the Sufism tradition, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Malfuzat	-	Conversation of Sufi saints

2. Maktubat	-	Collection of letters 

3. Tazkiras	-	Biographical account of saints

Which among the above is/are correct ?

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) Only 2

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.22 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Auqaf 	-	Charitable trusts

2. Inam		-	Tax free land

3. Sama		-	immediate requirements such as food, clothes, living quarters and ritual  necessities

Which among the above is/are correct ?

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1,2,3

D) Only 2

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.21 With reference to the ancient history, which among the following was/were the characteristics of ancient temples ?

1. The early temple was a small square room, called the garbhagriha, with a single doorway for the worshipper to enter and offer worship to the image

2. Tall structure i.e. shikhara, was built over the central shrine.

3. Assembly halls, huge walls and gateways, and arrangements for supplying water 

Which among the above is/are correct ?

A) Only 3

B) 1 & 3

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.20 With reference to the ancient rural society, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?

1. Vellalar	-	Large landowners

2. Uzhavar	-	Ploughmen 

3. Adimai	-	Slaves

Which among the above is/are correct ?

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Important point :

Gahapati was the owner, master or head of a household, who exercised control over the women, children, slaves and workers who shared a common residence. He was also the owner of the resources – land, animals and other things – that belonged to the household. Sometimes the term was used as a marker of status for men belonging to the urban elite, including wealthy merchants.


FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th

Q.19 With reference to the ancient History, what were Saddle querns ?

A) Grinding equipment for food

B) Equipment used for Irrigation

C) Used for manufacturing of bricks in an ancient India

D) Used for spinning of clothes 

Ans. A

Processing of food required grinding equipment as well as vessels for mixing, blending and cooking. These were made of stone, metal and terracotta. This is an excerpt from one of the earliest reports on excavations at Mohenjodaro, the best-known Harappan site.

They were made of hard, gritty, Igneous rocks or sandstone.



FROM CDS PREVIOUS YEAR QUSTION & WIKEPEDIA

Q.18 In context with the Dugong, consider the following statements:

1) It is close to the extinction

2) It is found in gulf of katch off the saurashtra coast as well as Gulf of mannar

3) It mostly depends upon the sea grass

Codes:

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

The Gulf of Kutch is the only region on India's west coast where the dugong - also known as a sea cow due to its vegetarian diet and feeding off of sea grass - is found, with populations found on the coasts of Tamil Nadu and higher north on the east coast.
The Gujarat Ecological Education and Research Foundation, a government body, estimates about 15 dugongs to be alive in the region. 
*The species is listed as a schedule 1 animal under India's wildlife protection laws, and globally considered "vulnerable" to extinction by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), a scientific body.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPER

Q.17 In context with the Green Energy corridor, which among the following statement is correct ?

A) It will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into the grid electricity

B) It will help in reducing of environmental pollution

C) It will facilitate the use & recycle of natural resources

D) None of the above

Ans. A

*India said the green energy corridor will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into its grid electricity. The corridor will be built across seven states over the next five to six years.

“The project will be implemented with the assistance of Germany which has promised to provide developmental and technical assistance of €1 billion as soft credit.

*The grid will also receive support from the World Bank and India’s National Electricity Fund. It aims to connect the southern grid to the national grid by 2014 to create the single largest transmission grid in the world.

*India’s wind and solar capacity has more than doubled in the last five years. As of February, India had 19,564 MW of wind. Solar, the second largest source of renewable energy, had 1,208 MW of installed capacity.

*Last month a joint study from Greenpeace and market analysts Bridge to India said Delhi could break the 2 GW solar power barrier by 2020 due to plummeting costs, extensive roof space and the rising demand for electricity.


FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th

Q.16 Statements:

1) Lomash rishi & Sudama caves in the barabar hills modeled on wooden architectural prototypes are example of the earliest cave architecture in India.

2) Barabar hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks

Codes:

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. A

*The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, mostly dating from the Mauryan period (322–185 BCE), and some with Ashokan inscriptions, located in the Bela Ganj Block of Gaya District of Bihar, India, 24 km north of Gaya.

*These caves are situated in the twin hills of Barabar (four caves) and Nagarjuni (three caves) - caves of the 1.6 km distant Nagarjuni Hill sometimes are singled out as Nagarjuni Caves. 

*These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC, Maurya period, of Ashoka (r. 273 BC to 232 BC.) and his son, Dasaratha. Though Buddhists themselves, they allowed various Jainsects to flourish under a policy of religious tolerance. 

*These caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect, founded byMakkhali Gosala, a contemporary of Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism, and of Mahavira, the last and 24thTirthankara of Jainism. Also found at the site several rock-cut Buddhist and Hindu sculptures. 

*Most caves at Barabar consist of two chambers, carved entirely out of granite, with a highly polished internal surface and exciting echo effect. The first chamber was meant for worshippers to congregate in a large rectangular hall, and the second, a small, circular, domed chamber for worship, this inner chamber probably had a small stupa like structure, at some point, though they are now empty.


FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE

Q.15 In context with the Bharatnatyam, which among the following statements are correct ?

1) This form of dance has no words but is composed of pure dance sequences characterized by variety of moods

2) Bharatnatyam leans heavily on the abhinaya followed by movement & mime

3) Jatiswaram , Shabdam, Varnam & Tillana are the forms of Bharatnatyam

Codes:

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Bharatnatyam originates in Tamil Nadu which is also referred to as artistic yoga and Natya yoga. The name Bharatnatyam is derived from the word "Bharata" and thus associated with the Natyashastra. Though the style of Bharatnatyam is over two thousand years old, the freshness and richness of its essence has been retained even today. The technique of human movement which Bharatnatyam follows can be traced back to the fifth Century A.D. from sculptural evidence. This classical dance has a mesmerizing effect as it uplifts the dancer and the beholder to a higher level of spiritual consciousness. It is a dancing style that comprises of Bhava, Raga, Tala, and Natya which reflect the real meaning of the Bharatnatyam.

Bharatanatyam is arguably the oldest and most traditional classical dance style which seemas a synthesis of philosophy, sculpture, music and literature. This dance got its name from Sage Bharata who wrote the Natya Shastra.

Bharatanatyam is an energetic dance from wherein the postures and balanced position, i.e. the weight of the body is placed squarely down the centre of the body. There is emphasis on the striking of the floor with the feet. There are jumps in the air as also pirouettes called bhramaris. There are movements done with the knees contacting the floor. These are called mandi adavus.
Bharatanatyam can be performed solo or in a group. The pure dance is called nritta and the expressive is nritya. The solo dancer uses various methods of story-telling to interpret the verses and stories she performs. The person who conducts the recital is called the natatuvanar,, who is generally the guru of the dancer. He or the plays the cymbals called nattuvangam. The other musicians are the vocalist, the mridangist or percussion player, of flutist, a violinist and a veena player.
One of the greatest performers of Bharatanatyam has been Balasaraswati who was influential in popularising the dance as much as Rukmini Devi Arundale. Balasaraswati was famous for her soulful renderings of abhinaya or mimetic piece, in which she not only danced but sang as well. 

The Steps & Performance

Bharatanatyam is always performed with the knees of the dancers bent. The dance form emphasizes on the hand movements to convey different kinds of emotions to the spectator. While performing Bharatanatyam, the artist visualizes his/her body as made up of triangles. The steps of the dance are based upon a balanced distribution of body weight and firm positions of the lower limbs, allowing the hands to cut into a line, to flow around the body, or to take positions that enhance the basic form. In order to perform Bharatnatyam, the artist should have the knowledge of the numerous subtle features of the dance style.

Four Techniques:

Karanas 
Described in Natya Shastra, Karanas are defined as the 108 key transitional movements of Bharatanatyam that also feature in other classical da nce forms of India. Karana is a Sanskrit word, meaning 'doing'. Classical dancer Padma Subramanyam is well known for her interpretation of Karanas, which predominantly includes the leg, hip, body and arm movements complemented by hasta mudras, as described in the Natya Shastra. 

Hastas
The use of expressive hand gestures is a highlighting feature of Bharatanatyam. As the name suggests, hastas are the wide variety of hand symbols used by the performer. Some of the most well known hand gestures of the dance form include Anjali, which is used as a symbol of salutation, when a person greets his/her fellow dancer. Hastas are broadly divided into two types - Asamyukta and Samyukta.

Adavus
Adavus is defined as a series of steps in Bharatanatyam. The execution of the steps is different from style to style. The 108 principals of adavus are recognized by most schools of Bharatanatyam. As many as 60 adavus are used by many professional dancers. Jathis is the combination of adavus and forms the Nritta passages in a Bharatanatyam performance.
Bhedas , Eye & Neck Movements
Bharatanatyam is considered incomplete without bhedas and the expressive eye movements of the performer. Neck and eye movements are used extensively in the dance form. The shiro bheda (head movements) comprises of Sama, Udhvahita, Adhomukha, Alolita,Dhutam, Kampitam, Paravruttam, Utkshiptam and Parivahitam.
Theme of Bharatnatyam 
Bharatnatyam is a solo, feminine type of a dance, which is tender and erotic. The basic theme is love, where the female dancers usually perform as a devotion to the Supreme Being; or love of a mother for child. It epitomizes the adoration of lovers separated and reunited. This dance is considered to be a fire dance, where there is a mysterious display of the abstract element of fire in the human body. 

Technique of Bharatnatyam 
Among the various styles of Bharatnatyam the Pandanallur and the Vazhuvoor are more significant. Pandanallur style is characterized by its deep sitting positions; its slow Lasya padams, and difficult standing positions. Vazhuvoor is characterized by a static posture to break the monotony with rhythmical variety.
The technique of Bharatnatyam consists of Natya, Nritta and Nritya. Natya is the dramatic art which is the language of gestures, poses and mimes. Nritta includes the rhythmic and repetitive elements. The Nritya is a combination of Nritta and Natya. Abhinaya also is another technique. It is subtle with more spontaneous expressions.
The theme of Bharatnatyam comes alive through the zealous performances of the dancers. It is the combination of technique, styles and Abhinaya. It starts with an invocation to Lord Gnana Sabesar of Vazhuvoor. The themes are personalized depending on the dancer. The dancers need to posses ten essential attributes which include Agility, Steadiness, graceful lines, balance in pirouettes, glance, hard work, intelligence, devotion, good speech, and singing ability.

Dressing style
The commonly used style in bharatanatyam are the skirt (saree) style or the pyjama style. Dancers were costumes made of silk sarees with gold zari embroidery designs. The pleats in this costumes opens beautifully. When the dancer forms a particular posture especially ariamandi(half sitting) and muzhu mandi(full sitting).

Role of Music in Bharatnatyam 
Music plays an important role in Bharatnatyam. The musical accompaniment of the Carnatic School predominates over the raga in the Nritta passages. The chief musical instruments used in Bharatnatyam are the Mridangam and a pair of Cymbals. The cymbals provide the timing and the Mridangam provides fractional measures of the broad beats. The dancer follows both. A tambura is also used to provide the scale for the refrain. The musical instruments used are Mridangam, Manjira, Vina, Violin, Kanjira, Surpeti, Venu and Tanpura. The costume consists of a richly embroidered dhoti of silk for both male and female dancers. There is a pleated or frilled cloth hanging from the waist to the knees which is laced over the Dhoti.


FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE

Q.14 Which among the following statements related to Kathakali are correct ?

1) Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali

2) Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved

3) It is characterized by facial expressions , movement of eye balls & lower eye lids

Codes:

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 2

D) 1,2,3

Ans. D

Introduction

Kathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally means "Story-Play". It is known for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for Kerala.

The themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature. They typically deal with the Mahabarat, the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as thePuranas. This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised Malayalam.

A Kathakali performance is a major social event. They generally start at dusk and go through out the night. Kathakali is usually performed only by men. Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women's costume. However, in recent years, women have started to become Kathakali dancers.

Kathakali has a long tradition. It dates back to the 17th century. It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon, who was the founder of the Kerala Kala Mandalam.
The actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story. These hand gestures, known as mudra, are common through out much of classical Indian dance.

Costume

The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali. The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy.

There are several kinds of costume. There are: Sathwika (the hero), Kathi (the villain), Minukku (females), and Thatti. These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known to Malayali (Keralite) audiences. Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costume.

The makeup is very elaborate. It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense. The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available. The white is made from rice flour, the red is made from Vermilion (a red earth such as cinnabar). The black is made from soot. The colours are not merely decoration, but are also a means of portraying characters. For instance, red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intent.
Music

The music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music (Carnatic sangeet); however the instrumentation is decidedly different. Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda, idakka, and shuddha madalam.


FRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPER

Q.13 ‘Come and make in India’ is an invitation for

A) Overseas Indian to return back to India and thus stop brain drain

B) Foreign companies to invest in India and sell anywhere in the world

C) Foreign nationals to seek employment in india

D) Both (a) and (c)

Ans. B


FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA

Q.12 Central Government has proposed to establish a Telecom Finance Corporation (TFC) in the 12th Five Year Plan period (2012-17). 

Telecom Finance Corporation is categorized as :

1. Non-banking Financial Company

2. Non-Deposit Infrastructure Finance Company

3. Public sector Unit

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

A) Only 1

B) 1 & 3

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans.D


FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA

Q.11 Recently which among the following products have accorded Geographical Indication Status ?

1. Vazhakkulam pineapple

2. Central Travancore jiggery

3. Pokkali rice

4. Jeerakasala

5. Gandhakasala

Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ?

A) 1,2,3,5

B) Only 4

C) 2 ,3,4

D) 1,2,3,4,5

Ans. D

Chengalikodan banana variety from Thrissur district of Kerala has been accorded Geographical Indication (GI) status by the Chennai based Central GI registry.
Darjeeling tea was the first agricultural product in India to be accorded with GI tag.


FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA

Q.10 Which among the following are included in the alternative investments ?

1) Infrastructure equity funds

2) Real estate funds

3) Social venture funds

4) Private Investment in Public Equity funds

5) Private equity fund

Codes:

A) 1,3,4,5

B) 2,3,4,5

C) 1,2,3,4

D) 1,2,3,4,5

Ans. D


FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th

Q.9 Which among the following are correct?

1) The Sufis were critical of the dogmatic definitions & scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran & Sunna (tradition of prophet) adopted by the theologians.

2)The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on the basis of their personal experience.

Codes:

A) Only 1

B) Only 2 

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.8 Statements:

1) Height of the tidal wave is regulated by the position of the earth, moon & sun

2) Spinning of earth & revolution of the moon determines the timing of the tide

Codes:

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C


FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL

Q.7 Statements :

1) Advocate general of state can be removed in same manner as a Judge of High Court

2) Attorney general of India can be removed in same manner as of Judge of Supreme Court

Codes:

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. D

Advocate general & Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of President


FRAMED FROM HISTORY MANSI PUBLICATIONS OF B.A.

Q.6 Consider the following statements :

1) Mandapams,Chawadis & Gopurams are the part of the Chola architecture

2) Dravidian architecture consists of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone, soapstone or granite.

Codes:

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. C

*Dravidian architecture was an architectural idiom that emerged in the Southern part of the Indian subcontinent or South India.
*It consists primarily of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone, soapstone or granite.
*Mentioned as one of three styles of temple building in the ancient book Vastu shastra, the majority of the existing structures are located in the Southern Indian states of Tamilnadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and Andhra pradesh.
*Various kingdoms and empires such as the Cholas, the Chera, the Pandyas, the Pallavas, the Gangas, the Rashtrakutas, the Chalukyas, the Hoysalas, and Vijayanagara Empire among others have made substantial contribution to the evolution of Dravidian architecture.
*This styled architecture can also be found in parts of North India, Northeastern and central Sri Lanka, Maldives, and various parts of Southeast Asia. Angkor Wat in Cambodia and Prambanan in Indonesia were built based on Dravida architecture.
*Chola style temples consist almost invariably of the three following parts, arranged in differing manners, but differing in themselves only according to the age in which they were executed:
*The porches or Mandapams, which always cover and precede the door leading to the cell.
*Gate-pyramids, Gopurams, which are the principal features in the quadrangular enclosures that surround the more notable temples.Gopurams are very common in dravidian temples.
Pillard halls (Chaultris or Chawadis) are used for many purposes and are the invariable accompaniments of these temples.
*Besides these, a temple always contains tanks or wells for water – to be used for sacred purposes or the convenience of the priests – dwellings for all the grades of the priesthood are attached to it, and other buildings for state or convenience.

FRAMED FROM CDS PREVIOUS QUESTION & WIKEPEDIA Q.5 Statements: 1) Sculptures of the Gandhara school stylistically are typically linked to the Greeco-Roman & Parthian art of Iran 2) Earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat valley pre-dated the Kushana period which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already well established in the pre-kushana period Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C

*Gandhara is noted for the distinctive Gandhāra style of Buddhist art, a consequence of merger of Greek, Syrian, Persian and Indian art traditions.
*The development of this form of art started in Parthian Period(50BC – 75AD).
*Gandhāran style flourished and achieved its peak during the Kushan period from 1st Century to 5th Century. It declined and suffered destruction after invasion of the White Huns in the 5th century.
*Style of Buddhist visual art that developed in what is now northwestern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan between the 1st century BC and the 7th century AD.
*The style, of Greco-Roman origin, seems to have flourished largely during the Kushan dynasty and was contemporaneous with an important but dissimilar school of Kushan art at Mathura (Uttar Pradesh, India).
*The Gandhara region had long been a crossroads of cultural influences. During the reign of the Indian emperor Ashoka around 3rd century B.C., the region became the scene of intensive Buddhist missionary activity; and, in the 1st century AD, rulers of the Kushan empire, which included Gandhara, maintained contacts with Rome.
*In its interpretation of Buddhist legends, the Gandhara school incorporated many motifs and techniques from classical Roman art, including vine scrolls, cherubs bearing garlands, tritons, and centaurs.
*The basic iconography, however, remained Indian.The materials used for Gandhara sculpture were green phyllite and gray-blue mica schist, which, in general, belong to an earlier phase, and stucco, which was used increasingly after the 3rd century A.D.
*The sculptures were originally painted and gilded. Gandhara's role in the evolution of the Buddha image has been a point of considerable disagreement among scholars. It now seems clear that the schools of Gandhara and Mathura each independently evolved its own characteristic depiction of the Buddha about the 1st century AD.
*The Gandhara school drew upon the anthropomorphic traditions of Roman religion and represented the Buddha with a youthful Apollo-like face, dressed in garments resembling those seen on Roman imperial statues.
*The Gandhara depiction of the seated Buddha was less successful.
*The schools of Gandhara and Mathura influenced each other, and the general trend was away from a naturalistic conception and toward a more idealized, abstract image.
*The Gandharan craftsmen made a lasting contribution to Buddhist art in their composition of the events of the Buddha's life into set scenes. The Hellenistic influence was nowhere more dramatic than in Gandhara, a term now used to describe the school of semi-classical sculptures of Pakistan and Afghanistan in the early centuries of our era.
*Gandhara is the name of an ancient province and kingdom, which in classical times, was limited to a small region in ancient India.
*The province Gandhara included roughly northwestern India between the Khyber Pass and the Indus River and the region of the Kabul Valley in Afghanistan. However, art and architecture from the Gandharean School had been found as far north as the Oxus River found in the Punjab. In the sixth to fourth centuries BCE Gandhara was dominated under the Achaemenid Dynasty of Iran.
*The successors of Alexander the Great maintained themselves in Bactria and Gandhara from 322 BCE to about 50 BCE, however, as early as the second century BCE these Greek Dynasties were already overrun by peoples of both nomadic and Parthian-Iranian origin. Rejoined to India under the Maurya Dynasty, the Gandhara province became the object of intense missionary activity by the Buddhist emperor Asoka (reigned c. 273-232 BCE).
*He made Buddhism the state religion, enforced the Buddhist doctrine of nonviolence (ahimsa) and prohibited animal sacrifices.
*In the first century AD the Kushans, a tribe of Scythian stock from north China made themselves masters of Gandhara. Their rule, however, was interrupted by the invasion of the Persian King Shapur I in AD 242, and the Buddhist civilization of Gandhara was finally completely destroyed by the White Huns, the Hephthalites, in the sixth century.
*The disastrous invasion of the White Huns put an end to all further productive activity in the once flourishing Gandhara province. Little is known about this time period except from Chinese pilgrims who as early as the fifth century AD undertook the long and arduous journey to the Holy Land of Buddhism. Fa Hsien, who traveled through the Peshawar Valley shortly after AD 400 described that the Gandhara province flourished, and that Emperor Kanishka's successors "were well cared for." When his successor, Sung Yen, visited the region in 520, he reported that the country had been overrun by the Huns.
*A few years later he reported that the Huns had virtually expiated Buddhism, had destroyed monasteries and had slashed most of the population in Gandhara.
*A century later, when the famous Chinese pilgrim Hsuan-Tsang traveled through north-west India he found Gandhara in a ruined, depopulated state. He describes in his "Records of the Western Countries," that ruined monasteries greeted him everywhere in the Peshawar Valley and reports of the terrible desolation of the once flourishing Buddhist centers.
*However, the final chapters of the Gandharan school has its setting in Kashmir and in remote centers such as Fondukistan and Afghanistan where artistic activity continued as late as the seventh century.
*Excavations have produced many statues, other artifacts and some monasteries. Unfortunately, there are no architectural monuments left intact in Gandhara only some structural remains and sculptured fragments.
*However, there is ample proof of active trade and cultural exchanges between the Mediterranean and the Kushan territories into China. Gandhara art is often referred to as the Graeco-or-Roman-Buddhist school.
*The founder of the School has been credited to the Kushan Emperor Kanishka (c. AD 129-160), because of his patronage to Buddhism, and his great artistic development.
*The character of Gandharan art is determined by the commercial relations between the Kushan and the Roman empires.
*The many archaeological discoveries of Alexandrian and Syrian workmanship at Taxila in the Punjab and Begram in the Kabul valley testify to the cultural and diplomatic connections with the Graeco-Roman West. Many artifacts, in particular sculptures, have survived and are now dispersed in major museums throughout the world.
*Evidence of Hellenistic art in the form of architecture had been noted on a number of temples from the city of Sirkap at Taxila, and on the tumbled columns of Ay Khanum's administrative center.
*Although the presence of this material provides a Hellenistic back ground for Gandhara art, it was the introduction of foreign workers from the eastern centers of the Roman Empire that led to the creation of the first Buddhist sculptures.
*It is not surprising that the Kushans, a nomadic people without a tradition of monumental art, requested the service of skilled artisans to meet the architectural and sculptural requirements for the many Buddhist establishments.
*It can be assumed that the practice of importing foreign artisans continued from the days of Kanishka's reign until the end of Buddhism in northwest India and the Punjab in the sixth to early seventh centuries.
*The majority of Gandharan art was, however, created by native craftsmen following the successive waves of foreign influences. The subject matter of Gandharan art was unquestionably Buddhist, while most motifs were of western Asiatic or Hellenistic origin.
*Mesopotamian motifs can be found on Persepolitan capitals; or, forms such as the Atlantis, garland-bearing Eros, and the semi-human creatures as the centaur and triton are part of the repertory of Hellenistic art and introduced by Roman Eurasian artists in the service of the Kushan court.
*The fantastic monsters, however, the sphinxes and griffins had already been assimilated by the ancient Indian schools. *Sculptures played a very decisive role in the Buddhist monasteries where they had been found in large quantities.
*Tall single statues were placed in chapels to be venerated by the monks and the faithful. Other large figures in high relief were placed with their back to the wall, and bass relief filled all manners of places and positions.
*The Gandhara schools is probably credited with the first representation of the Buddha in human form, the portrayal of Sakyamuni in his human shape, rather than shown as a symbol.
*Perhaps the school intended to create a human Bodhisattva, a representation of Prince Siddhartha, the Buddha Sakyamuni while still as a Bodhisattva.
*All early Bodhisattvas are shown in wearing turbans, jewelry, and muslin skirts, a costume that was an adaptation of the actual dress of Kushan and Indian nobles.
*The jewelry of these royal statues were a duplication of Hellenistic and Samatian gold, created by Western artisans. A definite borrowing from Roman art was the method of representing the story of the Buddhas legend in a series of separate episodes and panels. This was accomplished in much the same way than the pictorial iconography of the Christian legends, based on the Roman methods. On portraying the careers of the Caesar's several distinct climactic events where shown on separate panels.
*Another example are the earliest Gandhara Buddha's, where Sakyamuni is portrayed with the head of a Greek Apollo and arrayed in a Roman toga. It is the same early representation of Christ which shows Him with the head of the Greek Sun-God but dressed in the garb of the teachers of the ancient Greek world.
*The most frequently used material by Gandharan artists was a soft indigenous schist that varied in color from light to dark gray, and often contained sparkling mica particles. Many of these statues were covered with gold leaf to give them a luster in dark interiors.
*The most popular media, however, became an easy-to-work material terracotta and stucco. Because of the fragility of the material most statues were supported by attaching them to walls, giving them the appearance of a three-dimensional relief. Stucco sculptures were given a final coat of gesso, which was then painted. The most frequent subjects were representations of Buddha, Bodhisattwas, and attending monks or donors.
*The Buddha images display a variety of ethnic types and expressions. The human head usually has appears with a perfect oval face, regular features, with almond-shaped and slightly protruding eyes, with gentle arching eyebrows, a straight nose, and beautifully cut lips with a subtle smile.
*The Buddha's influence is evident in the half-closed eyes suggesting meditation. The face if often unbearded, but sometimes a mustache strikes a foreign note, most likely Kushan.
*The "usnisa" or cranial bump, a redestination the Buddha was born with, is usually seen in the form of the "chignon" a knot or a roll of hear wrapped in silk on the dome of Buddha's head. The elongated ears indicate the heavy, rich jewelry the Buddha wore.
*The Kushans were able to establish a strong empire for a period of about three hundred years and produced works of art reflecting both indigenous traditions and external influences. The detection of Greek and Roman elements in the Gandharan School testifies to the active exchange of ideals among all the civilizations of the Classical and Central Asian worlds.
*The Gandhara School reached its peak toward the end of the second century with the production of the most significant large Buddha statues.
*Their style continued to flourish into the third century until after the Sasanian invasion, and continued until the seventh century in Afghanistan.

FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE Q.4 Which among the following is involved in Tribhangi dance ? 1) Independent movement of head 2) Stamping of the foot 3) Independent movement of chest and pelvis Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.3 With reference to Chilgoza consider the following statements: 1) They contain high antioxidants that protect the cells from damage. 2) It is the major source of carbohydrates & fats. Options: A) only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A It is the major source of Carbohydrates & Proteins. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.2 Consider the following statements : 1. Mangroves are losing capacity to absorb carbon dioxide (co2 ) due to the increased salinity of water 2. Absorption of co2 plays a role in reduction of warming of the earth Which of the above statements is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.C The locked carbon in the plants is known as “Blue Carbons”. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.1 Twelve nations signed the historic Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) Agreement in Auckland recently. TPP is a free trade area and accounts for around 40% of global trade. Which one of the following is NOT a party to it? A) Singapore B) China C) Japan D) Mexico Ans. B Signatories 12 • Australia • Brunei • Canada • Chile • Japan • Malaysia • Mexico • New Zealand • Peru • Singapore • United States • Vietnam

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